Free AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam CPC Exam Questions
Page: 1 / 24Total 354 questions
Want more questions? Get Premium Access.
Question 1
According to the Repair (Closure) CPT guidelines, what type of repair is reported when a single layer closure includes copious irrigation and extensive cleaning to remove particulate matter?
Correct Answer:C. Intermediate repair
Explanation:
According to the CPT guidelines for Repair (Closure), an intermediate repair includes the closure of a wound with one or more layers of subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia in addition to the skin (epidermal and dermal) closure. It also involves extensive cleaning of the wound, which includes copious irrigation and the removal of particulate matter. This description fits the scenario provided in the question.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition, Repair (Closure) guidelines.
Question 2
A woman who is 19 weeks pregnant is taken to the hospital from her doctor's office due to the detection of no fetal heartbeat and the death of the fetus. Due to the stage of pregnancy, labor is initiated, and the fetus is delivered.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for the delivery of the fetus on the maternal record?
Correct Answer:B. 59821, O36.4XX0, Z3A.19
Explanation:
Procedure Coding (CPT):
59821 -- Induced abortion, by vaginal suppository, amniotic fluid injection, or other medical means
Used for fetal demise at 14 weeks gestation
Labor was medically induced and fetus delivered
Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):
O36.4XX0 -- Maternal care for intrauterine death, not applicable or unspecified
Correct maternal record diagnosis
Z3A.19 -- 19 weeks gestation
Required per ICD-10-CM guidelines for obstetric encounters
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A / D -- ICD-9 code (002.1) is invalid
C -- Missing required gestational age code
Question 3
A patient is diagnosed with sepsis due to enterococcus. What ICD-10-CM code is reported?
Correct Answer:A. A41.52
Explanation:
A41.52 = Sepsis due to Enterococcus.
When the organism is specified, a combination code is used.
No additional code for severe sepsis is documented.
Question 4
A 55-year-old female patient is diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma. She is having a resection of the affected kidney, a portion of the ureter, and rib resection, open aproach. The procedure is complicated due to a prior surgical procedure performed on the same kidney.
What CPT coding is reported?
Correct Answer:C. 50236
Explanation:
50236 -- Radical nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy and rib resection, open approach
Includes:
Kidney removal
Partial ureter removal
Rib resection
Correct for renal cell carcinoma
Increased complexity due to prior surgery does not change CPT code, but may support modifier -22
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
50545 / 50548 -- Laparoscopic/robotic nephrectomy
50225 -- Simple nephrectomy (no ureter or rib resection)
Question 5
A retinal specialist diagnoses type 2 diabetic mild nonproliferative retinopathy with macular edema, bilateral. Diabetes is secondary to Cushing's syndrome and controlled with oral hypoglycemics. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Correct Answer:B. E24.9, E08.3213, Z79.84
Explanation:
E08.3213 = Diabetes due to underlying condition with mild NPDR with macular edema, bilateral
E24.9 = Cushing's syndrome (underlying condition)
Z79.84 = Long-term use of oral hypoglycemic drugs
Sequencing follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for secondary diabetes.
Question 6
An otolaryngologist performs a tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy, reconstruction of the posterior ear canal wall, and ossicular chain reconstruction.
What CPT code is reported?
Correct Answer:C. 69642
Explanation:
69642 = Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy and ossicular chain reconstruction
Other codes represent variations without ossicular reconstruction or canal wall work
Question 7
A 60-year-old male has three-vessel disease and supraventricular tachycardia which has been refractory to other management. He previously had pacemaker placement and stenting of LAD coronary artery stenosis, which has failed to solve the problem. He will undergo CABG with autologous saphenous vein and an extensive modified MAZE procedure to treat the tachycardia.
He is brought to the cardiac OR and placed in the supine position on the OR table. He is prepped and draped, and adequate endotracheal anesthesia is assured. A median sternotomy incision is made and cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. The endoscope is used to harvest an adequate length of saphenous vein from his left leg. This is uneventful and bleeding is easily controlled. The vein graft is prepared and cut to the appropriate lengths for anastomosis. Two bypasses are performed: one to the circumflex and another to the obtuse marginal. The left internal mammary is then freed up and it is anastomosed to the ramus, the first diagonal, and the LAD. An extensive maze procedure is then performed and the patient is weaned from bypass. At this point, the sternum is closed with wires and the skin is reapproximated with staples. The patient tolerated the procedure without difficulty and was taken to the PACU.
The CABG procedure involved multiple bypasses, with the use of autologous saphenous vein grafts and the left internal mammary artery, along with an extensive modified MAZE procedure. CPT code 33535 describes a coronary artery bypass using arterial grafts, including at least three coronary artery bypasses. CPT code 33259-51 is for the MAZE procedure for supraventricular tachycardia, with the -51 modifier indicating multiple procedures. CPT code 33519-51 is for an additional vein graft, and CPT code 33508-51 describes the endoscopic harvesting of the vein.
A patient is brought to the operating room with a right-sided peripheral vertigo. The provider makes a postauricular incision and uses an operating microscope to perform a mastoidectomy using a burr. He next destroys the semicircular canals, the utricle, and saccule completely removing the diseased labyrinth structures. The provider sutures the incision.
Complete destruction/removal of semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule
This is a complete labyrinthectomy, not partial
69990 -- Microsurgical techniques, requiring use of operating microscope
Separately reportable with otologic procedures
Modifier -51 not required (add-on code)
Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):
H81.391 -- Peripheral vertigo, right ear
Correct laterality and condition
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
69905 -- Partial labyrinthectomy
R42 -- Symptom code (dizziness), not used when definitive diagnosis exists
Question 9
What does the term ''manipulation'' refer to in the context of fracture or dislocation treatment?
Correct Answer:B. The process of applying force or traction to align a fracture or dislocation.
Explanation:
In CPT fracture and dislocation care, manipulation refers to the application of force or traction to restore a bone or joint to its normal anatomic position.
This is a key distinction between with manipulation and without manipulation, which directly affects CPT code selection (e.g., 23505 vs. 23500).
Manipulation may be performed closed (no incision) or open (with incision).
Question 10
A patient returns for embryo transfer. The lab thaws cryopreserved embryos and cultures them for two additional days.
What CPT coding is reported?
Correct Answer:A. 89258, 89250
Explanation:
89258 = Thawing of cryopreserved embryos
89250 = Culture of embryos, per day (reported once per encounter)
Question 11
A patient undergoes a laparoscopic appendectomy for chronic appendicitis.
What CPT and diagnosis codes are reported?
Correct Answer:C. 44970, K36
Explanation:
44970 = Laparoscopic appendectomy
K36 = Chronic appendicitis
Symptoms are not coded once definitive diagnosis is made
Question 12
A patient with Parkinson's has sialorrhea. The physician administers an injection of atropine bilaterally into a total of four submandibular salivary glands.
What CPT coding is reported?
Correct Answer:A. 64611
Explanation:
Injection of atropine: Atropine is administered to reduce sialorrhea.
Bilateral submandibular salivary glands: The physician administers the injections into the salivary glands.
Total of four glands: Indicates that multiple glands are treated in the same session.
CPT code 64611 accurately represents chemodenervation of the salivary glands, bilateral. The use of -50, -52, or x4 modifiers is not appropriate since CPT guidelines include bilateral procedures in this code without needing additional modifiers or codes.
Question 13
A patient with compression fractures of L5 and the sacrum undergoes vertebroplasty, with cement injected into two vertebral bodies, performed bilaterally.
What CPT coding is reported?
Correct Answer:C. 22514, 22515
Explanation:
22514 = Vertebroplasty, lumbar (L5)
22515 = Each additional vertebral body (sacrum)
Vertebroplasty codes are inherently bilateral, so modifier -50 is not used
Question 14
An incision is made in the scalp, a craniectomy is performed to access the area where electrodes are present. The electrodes are removed. The surgical wound is closed.
What procedure code is reported?
Correct Answer:D. 61860
Explanation:
The procedure described involves the removal of electrodes from the cranial area after making an incision in the scalp and performing a craniectomy.
Procedure Description:
Incision in the scalp.
Craniectomy to access the area with electrodes.
Removal of electrodes.
Closure of the surgical wound.
CPT Coding:
61860: Removal of intracranial neurostimulator electrodes, including burr hole(s) or craniectomy.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on neurostimulator procedures.
Question 15
The spleen is in what organ system?
Correct Answer:D. Lymphatic
Explanation:
The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering blood, removing damaged blood cells, and supporting immune function. The spleen contains lymphocytes that help fight infections and regulate the immune response.
A . Nervous: The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, unrelated to immune function.
B . Endocrine: The endocrine system regulates hormones through glands like the thyroid and pancreas, not directly involved with blood filtration or immune cell production.
C . Digestive: While the spleen is located near digestive organs, it does not play a role in digestion.