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Free CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam SK0-005 Exam Questions

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Question 1

Several new components have been added to a mission-critical server, and corporate policy states all new components must meet server hardening requirements. Which of the following should be applied?

Correct Answer: B. Driver updates
Explanation:

Driver updates should be applied to the new components that have been added to a mission-critical server, as part of the server hardening requirements. Drivers are software programs that enable the communication and functionality of hardware devices, such as network cards, storage controllers, or graphics cards. Updating drivers can improve the performance, compatibility, and stability of the new components with the server operating system and applications.Reference:CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.


Question 2

Which ofthefollowingshouldatechnician verify FIRST before decommissioning and wipingafile server?

Correct Answer: D. Non-utilization
Explanation:

The first thing that a technician should verify before decommissioning and wiping a file server is non-utilization, which means that no one is using or accessing the server or its data. This can be done by checking logs, monitoring network traffic, or contacting users or stakeholders. Non-utilization ensures that decommissioning and wiping will not cause any data loss or disruption to business operations. Verified Reference: [Server Decommissioning Checklist]


Question 3

A server administrator is exporting Windows system files before patching and saving them to the following location:

\\server1\ITDept\

Which of the following is a storage protocol that the administrator is MOST likely using to save this data?

Correct Answer: C. CIFS
Explanation:

The storage protocol that the administrator is most likely using to save data to the location \server1\ITDept\ is CIFS. CIFS (Common Internet File System) is a protocol that allows file sharing and remote access over a network. CIFS is based on SMB (Server Message Block), which is a protocol that enables communication between devices on a network. CIFS uses UNC (Universal Naming Convention) paths to identify network resources, such as files or folders. A UNC path has the format \servername\sharename\path\filename. In this case, server1 is the name of the server, ITDept is the name of the shared folder, and \ is the path within the shared folder.


Question 4

Which of the following is the MOST secure method to access servers located in remote branch offices?

Correct Answer: A. Use an MFAout-of-band solution.
Explanation:

This is the most secure method to access servers located in remote branch offices because MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which requires users to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity. An out-of-band solution means that one of the factors is delivered through a separate channel, such as a phone call, a text message, or an email. This adds an extra layer of security and prevents unauthorized access even if a password is compromised.Reference:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-mfa-howitworks


Question 5

An IT administrator is configuring ten new desktops without an operating system. The infrastructure contains an imaging server and operating system loaded on a USB, a DVD, and an SD card. Which of the following options

would minimize the amount of time the administrator needs to load the operating system on every machine?

Correct Answer: C. Network
Explanation:

Using a network-based deployment, such as network booting (PXE - Preboot Execution Environment) or imaging through a server, is the most efficient way to load operating systems onto multiple machines simultaneously. This approach minimizes the manual intervention required for each device, as the administrator can initiate the operating system installation or imaging process across all desktops at once through the network. In contrast, using an SDcard, DVD (Optical), or USB would require the administrator to physically move the media from one desktop to another, significantly increasing the setup time for each device.


Question 6

When configuring networking on a VM, which of the following methods would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address?

Correct Answer: B. NAT
Explanation:

The method that would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address is NAT. NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that allows multiple devices to use a single public IP address by mapping their private IP addresses to different port numbers. NAT can be used for VM networking to enable multiple VMs on the same host to access the internet or other networks using the host's IP address. NAT can also provide security benefits by hiding the VMs' private IP addresses from external networks.


Question 7

A newly hired systems administrator is concerned about fileshare access at the company. The administrator turns on DLP for the fileshare and lets it propagate for a week. Which of the following can the administrator perform now?

Correct Answer: B. Audit the permissions of the fileshare.
Explanation:

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems are designed to monitor and protect sensitive data from unauthorized access, use, or transmission. By enabling DLP on a fileshare, the system administrator can track how data is accessed and used over time.

After allowing the DLP system to run for a week, the administrator can audit the permissions of the fileshare. This involves reviewing which users and groups have access to the fileshare and determining if their permissions align with their roles and responsibilities. Auditing permissions helps identify any discrepancies or excessive privileges that could lead to potential data breaches or unauthorized data exposure.

Other Options:

A . Manage the fileshare from an RDP session: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows administrators to remotely manage servers and their resources. While this is a method to access the server, it doesn't directly relate to auditing or managing fileshare permissions.

C . Audit the access to the physical fileshare: Auditing physical access involves reviewing who has physical entry to the hardware where the fileshare resides. While important, enabling DLP focuses on monitoring digital access and data movement rather than physical security.

D . Manage the permissions from the fileshare: Managing permissions involves setting or modifying user access rights. However, before making changes, it's crucial to audit existing permissions to understand the current access control structure.

Therefore, after running DLP for a week, the appropriate action is to audit the permissions of the fileshare to ensure that access controls are properly configured and align with the principle of least privilege.


CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Security and Disaster Recovery -- Explain data security risks and mitigation strategies

Question 8

A security technician generated a public/private key pair on a server. The technician needs to copy the key pair to another server on a different subnet. Which of the following is the most secure method to copy the keys?

HTTP

Correct Answer: C. USB
Explanation:

SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) is a protocol that allows users to securely transfer files between servers using SSH (Secure Shell) encryption.SCP encrypts boththe data and the authentication information, preventing unauthorized access,interception, ormodification of the files1.SCP also preserves the file attributes, such as permissions, timestamps, and ownership2.


Question 9

A server that recently received hardware upgrades has begun to experience random BSOD conditions. Which of the following are likely causes of the issue? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: A. Faulty memory; C. Incorrectly seated memory
Explanation:

Faulty memory and incorrectly seated memory are likely causes of the random BSOD conditions on the server. Memory is one of the most common hardware components that can cause BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors on Windows systems. BSOD errors occur when the system encounters a fatal error that prevents it from continuing to operate normally. Memory errors can be caused by faulty or incompatible memory modules that have physical defects or manufacturing flaws. Memory errors can also be caused by incorrectly seated memory modules that are not properly inserted or locked into the memory slots on the motherboard. This can result in loose or poor connections between the memory modules and the motherboard.


Question 10

A technician is troubleshooting a database server that has 12 external disk arrays. Multiple disks are in a degraded state. The server is in a remote colocation facility and has on-site support. The technician notices all of the external storage arrays are degraded, but the internal arrays are functional. Which of the following steps should the technician take next to quickly address this issue?

Correct Answer: C. Access the server with RDP and start the RAID utility software to rebuild the arrays.
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed

The external disk arrays being in a degraded state suggests a RAID failure or a communication issue with the storage system.

The quickest and most effective solution is to access the RAID utility software remotely via Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to diagnose and potentially rebuild the degraded arrays.

This avoids unnecessary downtime and delays caused by traveling to the site before attempting remote troubleshooting.

If the RAID utility shows disk failures, the technician can coordinate with on-site staff for further action, such as replacing failed drives or performing additional recovery steps.


CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Study Guide

ExamTopics - CompTIA SK0-005

Question 11

A technician is trying to determine the reason why a Linux server is not communicating on a network. The returned network configuration is as follows:

eth0: flags=4163 mtu 1500

inet 127.0.0.1 network 255.255.0.0 broadcast 127.0.0.1

Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?

Correct Answer: C. The server is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server
Explanation:

The reason why the Linux server is not communicating on a network is that it is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a client device to obtain an IP address and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server automatically. However, if there is no DHCP server on the network, the client device will not be able to obtain a valid IP address and will assign itself a link-local address instead. A link-local address is an IP address that is only valid within a local network segment and cannot be used for communication outside of it. A link-local address has a prefix of 169.254/16 in IPv4 or fe80::/10 in IPv6. In this case, the Linux server has assigned itself a link-local address of 127.0.0.1, which is also known as the loopback address. The loopback address is used for testing and troubleshooting purposes and refers to the device itself. It cannot be used for communication with other devices on the network.


Question 12

An administrator is troubleshooting a failed NIC in an application server. The server uses DHCP to get all IP configurations, and the server must use a

specific IP address. The administrator replaces the NIC, but then the server begins to receive a different and incorrect IP address. Which of the following will enable the server to get the proper IP address?

Correct Answer: A. Modifying the MAC used on the DHCP reservation
Explanation:

A DHCP reservation is a way to assign a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address, which is a unique identifier for each network interface card (NIC). When the administrator replaced the NIC, the MAC address of the server changed, and the DHCP server no longer recognized it as the same device. Therefore, the DHCP server assigned a different IP address to the server, which was incorrect for the application. To fix this problem, the administrator needs to modify the DHCP reservation to use the new MAC address of the NIC, so that the server can get the proper IP address.

A WWNN (World Wide Node Name) is a unique identifier for a Fibre Channel node, which is a device that can communicate over a Fibre Channel network. A WWNN is not related to DHCP or IP addresses, and it is not used for DHCP reservations. Therefore, options B and D are incorrect.

Updating the local hosts file with the correct IP address (option C) is also incorrect, because it does not solve the problem of getting the correct IP address from the DHCP server. The hosts file is a local file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, and it is used to override DNS queries. However, it does not affect how the DHCP server assigns IP addresses to devices. Moreover, updating the hosts file manually on every device that needs to communicate with the server is not a scalable or efficient solution.


How to reserve IP Address in DHCP Server - Ask Ubuntu

Static IP vs DHCP Reservation - The Tech Journal

How to Configure DHCP Server Reservation in Windows ... - ITIngredients

Question 13

An administrator is researching the upcoming licensing software requirements for an application that usually requires very little technical support. Which of the following licensing models would be the LOWEST cost solution?

Correct Answer: A. Open-source
Explanation:

Open-source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone. It usually requires very little technical support and has no licensing fees. Therefore, it would be the lowest cost solution for an application that does not need much support.Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.3)


Question 14

A bad actor leaves a USB drive with malicious code on it in a company's parking lot. Which of the following describes this scenario?

Correct Answer: D. Social engineering
Explanation:

Leaving a USB drive in a company parking lot is a classic example ofsocial engineering, where the bad actor relies on human curiosity to prompt someone to pick up the USB drive and insert it into their computer, potentially infecting the system with malicious code.

Social engineering (Answer D):The attacker manipulates human behavior (in this case, curiosity) to exploit security weaknesses.

Hacking (Option A):Hacking refers to directly breaching security systems or exploiting software vulnerabilities, not manipulating humans.

Insider threat (Option B):This involves a legitimate insider within the organization carrying out malicious activities, which isn't the case here.

Phishing (Option C):Phishing typically involves emails or messages designed to deceive individuals into providing sensitive information.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered underSK0-005 Objective 4.2: Explain server security concepts and best practices.


Question 15

Which of the following asset management documents is used to identify the location of a serves within a data center?

Correct Answer: C. Rack layout
Explanation:

A rack layout is a document that shows the physical location and arrangement of servers and other devices within a rack. It can include information such as server names, IP addresses, power consumption, and cable connections. A rack layout can help identify and locate servers easily and efficiently in a data center. Verified Reference: [Rack layout], [Data center]