Free NABP North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination NAPLEX Exam Questions
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Question 1
Proportion of people in a population who have a particular disease at a specified point in time or over a specified period of time is definition as which of the following?
Correct Answer:B. Prevalence rate
Explanation:
Incidence rate = New reported cases / summed person-years of observation (avg population during time interval) Prevalence = Cases in a population in a given time period / total population at that time.
Select the class of Anti-diabetic medication that works in the specified organ to prevent hyperglycemi
a. Select all that applies. Alpha cells in pancreases
Correct Answer:C. DPP4 Inhibitors
Explanation:
DPP4 Inhibitors, D Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists Sulfonylureas work in beta cells in the pancreas that are still functioning to enhance insulin secretion. Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors stop -glucosidase enzymes in the small intestine and delay digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides which lowers the levels of glucose after meals. DPP4 blocks the degradation ofGLP-1, GIP, and a variety of other peptides, including brain natriuretic peptide. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists work in various organs of the body. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists enhance glucose homeostasis through: (i) stimulation of insulin secretion; (ii) inhibition of glucagon secretion; (iii) direct and indirect suppression of endogenous glucose production; (iv) suppression of appetite; (v) enhanced insulin sensitivity secondary to weight loss; (vi) delayed gastric emptying, resulting in decreased postprandial hyperglycaemia. Thiazolidinediones are the only true insulin-sensitising agents, exerting their effects in skeletal and cardiac muscle, liver, and adipose tissue. It ameliorates insulin resistance, decreases visceral fat. Biguanides work in liver, muscle, adipose tissue via activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reduce hepatic glucose production. SGLT2 inhibitors work in the kidneys to inhibit sodium-glucose transport proteins to reabsorb glucose into the blood from muscle cells; overall this helps to improve insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreas.
https://doi.org/10.1093/eurheartj/ehv239
Question 3
When does the newer chronic kidney disease (CKD) guidelines recommend stopping metformin?
Correct Answer:A. when the estimated glomerular filtration (eGFR) is <30 mL/min/1.73 m2
Explanation:
Metformin should be stopped when eGFR falls below 30. This is the only cutoff that is recommended for absolute discontinuing. If the eGFR falls between 30-44 while ontherapy, benefits and risks of discontinuing should be evaluated. New initiation is only recommended when eGFR >45.
Question 4
Which of the following should be monitored when a patient is on SGLT2 inhibitor?
Correct Answer:E. All of the above
Explanation:
Because SGLT2 inhibitors work by preventing reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, this increases frequency of urination. All of the options are monitoring requirements since the hydration status, blood pressure, blood glucose, and renal function may all be changed from increased urination (from the mechanism of the drug).
Question 5
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKD
Correct Answer:B. Dexamethasone
Explanation:
Dexamethasone can increase LN's blood glucose. All glucocorticosteroids are known to increase blood glucose. Blood glucose would need to be monitored while LN is being treated with dexamethasone.
Question 6
An 18-year-old female is referred to a dermatologist for treatment of severe acne vulgaris. The dermatologist wants to start her on tetracycline.
What test should the patient have prior to starting treatment?
Correct Answer:A. Pregnancy test
Explanation:
Pregnancy test. Tetracyclines are effective in the treatment of severe cases of acne. They are however teratogenic. As such, it is imperative to make sure female patients are not pregnant prior to starting this medication. In many instances patients are started on concurrent birth control to mitigate this risk even further.
A chest x-ray (B) is an important exam to obtain prior to starting drugs which have pulmonary toxicity as a side effect such as amiodarone. A complete blood count (C) would be useful prior to starting a medication that causes anemia, such as immunosuppressive and chemotherapeutic agents. Liver function tests (D) are important to establish as a baseline prior to starting anti-mycobacterial agents. Creatine kinase levels (E) are used to establish as a baseline prior to starting statins.
Question 7
Which of the following antidiabetic medication may cause cyanocobalamin deficiency?
Correct Answer:E. Metformin
Explanation:
Metformin is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency because it affects the calcium dependent membrane uptake of it. All other drug classes are not associated with this.
Question 8
Which of these drugs is used to promote fetal lung maturation?
Correct Answer:A. Dexamethasone
Explanation:
Dexamethasone is used to promote fetal lung maturation. This may be necessary in cases of women who need to deliver prematurely. A tocolytic drug, such as nifedipine, may be used to suppress labor whilst dexamethasone works to accelerate fetal lung development.
Question 9
Which of these medicines is well-known to cause a positive direct Coombs test?
Correct Answer:A. Methyldopa
Explanation:
The direct Coombs test is used to test for autoimmune hemolyticanemia -- a condition in which the body attacks red blood cells, leading to anemia. Some drugs can cause a positive direct Coombs test -- methyldopa being one of the most well-known (via IgG-mediated type II hypersensitivity reaction). Other drugs that can cause this effect include quinidine (IgM-mediated activation) and penicillins (at very high doses).
Question 10
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKDA.
His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, major depression, hypothyroidism and chronic back pain. Post-op day 1, LN's medication includes Dexamethasone 8mg iv q6h with taper dosing, Ondansetron 4mg iv q6h prn for N/V, Levothyroxine 0.075mg po daily, Lisinopril 10mg po daily, Citalopram 20mg po daily, Docusate sodium / Senna 1 tab po twice a day, Bisacodyl 10mg suppository daily prn for constipation, Famotidine 20mg iv q12hr, Metoclopramide 10mg iv q6h, Metformin 500mg po bid, D51/2NS with 20K at 125mls/hour and Hydromorphone PCA at 0.2mg/hour of basal rate, demand dose 0.1mg. lock-out
every 6min, one hour limit 2.2mg/hour. Pertinent morning labs includes serum creatinine 1.4mg/dl, Mg 1.5mg/ dl, K 5.0mmol/L, Na 135mmol/L.
It is recommended to monitor complete blood count in patients on chronic metformin because of what reason?
Correct Answer:C. Metformin may decrease vitamin B12 levels
Explanation:
Metformin may impair the absorption of vitamin B12, especially in those with inadequate vitamin b12 or calcium intake/absorption. Vitamin b12 deficiency can be treated with discontinuation of therapy or supplementation. Vitamin b12 serum concentrations should be monitored periodically with long-term therapy.
Question 11
Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat infections associated with stenotrophomonas maltophilia?
Correct Answer:D. Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
Explanation:
Primary treatment for stenotrophomonas maltophilia is SMX-TMP. Meropenem, ciprofloxacin, Ampicillin and vancomycin have no coverage.
Question 12
Your patient is a 58-year-old male who presents with onset of severe substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. An ECG reveals an acute STEMI, and he is on his way to the cardiac catheterization suite for percutaneous coronary intervention.
Which of the following drugs used in acute coronary syndromes treated with PCI must undergo oxidation by hepatic P450 enzymes to an active form?
Correct Answer:A. Clopidogrel
Explanation:
Clopidogrel and ticlopidine are ADP receptor pathway inhibitors. The irreversible inhibition of the ADP- dependent pathway of platelet activation is thought to be the result of covalent modification and inactivation of the platelet P2Y ADP receptor. This receptor is coupled to the inhibition of adenylyl cyclase. Both drugs are prodrugs and undergo conversion to active metabolites in the liver. However, clopidogrel must undergo oxidation by hepatic P450 enzymes to its active form. This is significant because many drugs are metabolized the hepatic P450 enzymes, including statins, and clopidogrel may interact with these medications. Clopidogrel is a second-generation thienopyridine and ticlopidine is a first-generation thienopyridine. Both drugs are indicated in combination with aspirin to prevent stent thrombosis. Eptifibatide is a GPIIb-IIIa receptor antagonist that is used to treat unstable angina and non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction. Eptifibatide is also used to reduce ischemic events in patients who are undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. The drug is a synthetic peptide that directly antagonizes the GPIIb-IIIa receptor on the platelet. Aspirin is an antiplatelet drug that works by inhibition of synthesis of prostaglandins. Prostaglandin G2 is the result of a synthesis pathway that is activated by platelets and endothelial cells, and results in localized
vasoconstriction and induction of platelet aggregation, as well as causing release of platelet granules. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that acts on vitamin K-dependent reactions in the coagulation pathway. Vitamin K is necessary for hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C and protein S. Vitamin K- dependent carboxylation is necessary for induction of enzymatic activity of these coagulation factors. Take- home message: Clopidogrel, a second-generation thienopyridine ADP receptor pathway inhibitor, is indicated in combination with aspirin to prevent stent thrombosis in patients who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention after myocardial infarction. Clopidogrel is a prodrug that must undergo oxidation by hepatic P450 enzymes, and therefore may affect the activity of statins and other drugs dependent on the hepatic P450 enzymes.
Question 13
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKDA.
His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, major depression, hypothyroidism and chronic back pain. Post-op day 1, LN's medication includes Dexamethasone 8mg iv q6h with taper dosing, Ondansetron 4 mg iv q6h prn for N/V, Levothyroxine 0.075 mg po daily, Lisinopril 10 mg po daily, Citalopram 20 mg po daily, Docusate sodium / Senna 1 tab po twice a day, Bisacodyl 10 mg suppository daily prn for constipation, Famotidine 20 mg iv q12hr, Metoclopramide 10mg iv q6h, Metformin 500 mg po bid, D51/2NS with 20K at 125 mls/hour and Hydromorphone PCA at 0.2mg/hour of basal rate, demand dose 0.1 mg. lock-out every 6min, one hour limit 2.2 mg/hour. Pertinent morning labs includes serum creatinine 1.4 mg/dl, Mg 1.5 mg/dl, K 5.0 mmol/L, Na 135 mmol/L.
Which of the following medication/s should LN be on to prevent the most common side effect of hydromorphone?
Correct Answer:E. Docusate sodium / Senna for Constipation and ondansetron for N/V
Explanation:
LN should be on docusate sodium/Senna for constipation and ondansetron for N/V. Dexamethasone has an off label use for N/V that is chemotherapy-associated. It is mostly used as an anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressant agent. Hydromorphone does not cause hyperglycemia. The most common side effects of opioids are nausea, vomiting and constipation.
Question 14
Which of the following is dichotomous variable?
Correct Answer:C. alive / dead
Explanation:
Dichotomous data is considered categorical data that only has two categories, or two answer choices. All 3 answer choices have only 2 categories: sex has male or female, pain is yes or no, and alive or dead is only two options also.
Your patient is a 43-year-old male who is experiencing post-operative voiding difficulty after an elective inguinal hernia repair. His post void residual volume was 280 cc.
Which of the following medications is the most appropriate choice of therapy for this patient?
Correct Answer:A. Bethanechol
Explanation:
The patient is experiencing a common complication of low abdominal surgery. Post-operative urinary retention occurs in almost 25% of patients after low abdominal surgical procedures. A normal post-void residual volume is less than 50 cc or urine. The effects of anesthesia and analgesia both contribute to bladder distension, decreased micturition reflex, reduction of contractility of the detrusor muscle of the bladder, and incomplete voiding. The detrusor muscle of the bladder is stimulated to contract by muscarinic cholinergic agonists. Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist and is frequently used in this setting to improve bladder emptying. Finasteride is a drug that is a 5 alpha reductase inhibitor indicated for use in patients with bladder outlet obstruction as a result of prostatic hypertrophy. The inhibition of 5 alpha reductase decreases local conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate gland, which results in gradual shrinkage over a period of six to twelve months. Phenylephrine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist that is selective for alpha-1 receptors. Activation of the alpha 1 receptors in the bladder results in contraction of the trigone muscle and sphincter.
This promotes urinary retention. Oxybutynin is an antimuscarinic agent that is useful for treatment of urge incontinence, and would have a detrimental effect on this patient's bladder disorder. Imipramine is a medication with anticholinergic properties that would also cause worsening of the patient's condition. Take home message: Post-operative urinary retention with concomitant incomplete voiding is a complication that results from a decreased micturition reflex, increased vesical sphincter tone, or decreased contractility of the detrusor muscle of the bladder. It can be successfully treated with a muscarinic agonist, such as bethanechol, or with an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist.