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Free Acams Certified Cryptoasset Anti-Financial Crime Specialist Examination CCAS Exam Questions

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Question 1

Which is a type of restricted blockchain?

Correct Answer: D. Consortium
Explanation:

A restricted blockchain is one where participation---either in transaction validation, data access, or both---is limited to selected entities rather than being open to the public.

Consortium blockchain (D) is a common type of restricted blockchain in which multiple pre-approved organizations collectively manage the network. It offers partial decentralization but with controlled membership, making it suitable for regulated environments such as financial services, supply chain tracking, and interbank settlements.

Other options explained:

Hybrid (A): Combines elements of public and private chains, but not necessarily ''restricted'' in the strict governance sense.

Public (B): Open to anyone to join, read, and write data; not restricted.

Private (C): While private blockchains are also restricted, in AML/CFT guidance, ''restricted blockchain'' generally refers to consortium arrangements involving multiple vetted participants, rather than a single organization's closed chain.

Regulatory and technical literature in DIFC/ADGM contexts note that consortium blockchains allow for compliance controls, participant vetting, and transaction monitoring---making them particularly suitable for financial ecosystems where controlled access is essential.


Question 2

Which governance function is ultimately responsible for approving AML/CFT policies?

Correct Answer: B. Board of Directors
Explanation:

The Board holds ultimate responsibility for policy approval under DFSA and FSRA AML rules, ensuring senior-level oversight.


Question 3

Which type of cryptoasset is explicitly designed to maintain a stable value?

Correct Answer: B. Stablecoin
Explanation:

Stablecoins aim to maintain value stability by pegging to assets like fiat currency or commodities. Regulators stress monitoring stablecoin reserve transparency to prevent misuse for layering illicit funds.


Question 4

Which operational risk mitigation practice by virtual asset service providers (VASPs) is most effective when considering their relationships with other VASPs?

Correct Answer: D. Gathering sufficient information on the counterpart VASP to determine the quality of the supervision it receives for transactional activities
Explanation:

Effective risk mitigation requires VASPs to obtain sufficient information about counterpart VASPs to assess the quality of their regulatory supervision and controls. This helps determine the risk of transactions and build a risk-based framework for correspondent relationships.

Having no requirements (A) or engaging with poorly regulated jurisdictions (B) increases risk. Blanket high-risk classification (C) without proper assessment is inefficient.

FATF Recommendation 15 and DFSA guidance emphasize due diligence on counterparties as a critical control.


Question 5

A compliance officer Is assigned a group of customers. Which action should the officer fake to determine the appropriate level of customer due diligence apply to each customer?

Correct Answer: D. Take into account all risk variables such as me purpose of the account or relationship
Explanation:

A risk-based approach to customer due diligence requires considering all relevant risk factors including customer profile, the nature and purpose of the account or relationship, geographic risks, transaction patterns, and other relevant factors. This ensures that CDD intensity is commensurate with assessed risk.

Assessing only location (A) or transaction thresholds (B) is insufficient alone. Applying uniform CDD measures (C) contradicts the risk-based approach advocated by FATF and DFSA regulations.

DFSA AML guidance explicitly requires comprehensive risk assessment considering multiple variables to determine appropriate due diligence levels.


Question 6

What three classifications of assets does the Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (commonly known as MICA) apply to? (Select Three.)

Correct Answer: B. Electronic money tokens; D. Cryptoassets; E. Asset-referenced tokens
Explanation:

The EU's Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MICA) applies specifically to:

Electronic Money Tokens (B): Tokens that fulfill the definition of electronic money under the E-Money Directive.

Cryptoassets (D): Broad category including digital representations of value that are not covered by existing financial services legislation.

Asset-Referenced Tokens (E): Tokens that purport to maintain a stable value by referencing one or several assets.

Meme coins (A) and privacy coins (C) are not separately classified under MICA but may fall under broader cryptoasset categories subject to other regulations.


Question 7

What is the intention of the Financial Action Task Force's (FATF's) Travel Rule?

Correct Answer: C. To mitigate money laundering and terrorist financing (ML/TF) risk by increasing the ability to follow funds via different financial institutions
Explanation:

The FATF Travel Rule requires Virtual Asset Service Providers to share originator and beneficiary information for virtual asset transfers exceeding a certain threshold. Its purpose is to mitigate ML/TF risks by increasing transparency and enabling authorities to trace the movement of funds across institutions and jurisdictions.

It does not aim to slow transactions (B) or directly enhance CDD (A), although it supports the overall AML framework including CDD.

This rule is a cornerstone of FATF's efforts to regulate virtual asset transfers effectively and is adopted by DFSA and other regulators.


Question 8

A compliance officer is conducting an AML risk assessment of two different operating models: a centralized cryptoasset exchange and a decentralized cryptoasset exchange. Which key difference causes the compliance officer to risk-rate the decentralized exchange higher than the centralized exchange?

Correct Answer: C. The lack of a central counterparty
Explanation:

Decentralized exchanges lack a central counterparty responsible for AML compliance, making it difficult to enforce KYC/CDD, monitor transactions, or implement controls. This structural characteristic increases inherent AML risk compared to centralized exchanges, which have accountable operators.

Transaction cost (A), validator nodes (B), or asset types (D) are less impactful in the compliance risk rating.


Question 9

An investigations manager at a cryptoasset exchange is developing an AML risk-rating framework for cryptoassets under consideration for support by the exchange. Which criteria is most important for rating the residual AML risk of a particular cryptoasset?

Correct Answer: C. How the cryptoasset will be monitored for unusual activity
Explanation:

The ability to monitor the cryptoasset for unusual activity directly impacts the residual AML risk, as effective monitoring enables detection and prevention of illicit transactions. Even if a blockchain is public or private (A), or the asset is profitable (B), the lack of proper monitoring mechanisms increases risk. The number of exchanges supporting the asset (D) is less significant than monitoring capability.

AML frameworks and DFSA guidance stress that risk mitigation depends heavily on effective transaction monitoring.


Question 10

How does law enforcement use Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs)? (Select Two.)

Correct Answer: C. To develop intelligence on new targets; D. To confirm or develop information on existing targets
Explanation:

Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) are a critical tool for law enforcement agencies. They are primarily used to develop intelligence on potential new criminal targets and to confirm or expand information about existing investigations. SARs do not serve as direct evidence of money laundering in court but provide leads and context that enable law enforcement to build cases.

The DFSA's thematic reviews and AML guidance clarify that SARs assist in identifying emerging crime patterns and help intelligence units track suspicious transactions over time. They also allow law enforcement to corroborate data from other sources.

SARs help:

Develop intelligence on new targets (C) by revealing previously unknown suspicious behavior.

Confirm or develop information on existing targets (D) by adding transactional data and context.

Identifying regulatory failings (A) is primarily a supervisory function, and SARs themselves are not evidence for prosecution (B) but intelligence inputs.

Therefore, options C and D are correct.