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Free Acams Certified Know Your Customer Associate CKYCA Exam Questions

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Question 1

Assets under management show an increase of investors whose income originates from high-risk jurisdictions. This indicates higher risk in which area?

Correct Answer: B. Geographical
Explanation:

FATF considers jurisdictions with weak AML/CFT controls as high-risk. An increase in investors from such regions raises geographical risk, since the customers' funds originate from locations with elevated money laundering or terrorism financing threats.


Question 2

Which key elements should be included in CDD?

Correct Answer: B. Customer overview, nature of business or occupation, geographic profile, and summary of red flags C Risk assessment statement risk appetite description and the risk presented by the customer
Explanation:

Core elements of Customer Due Diligence include a customer overview, the nature of their business or occupation, their geographic profile, and a summary of any identified red flags, all of which support accurate risk assessment and monitoring.


Question 3

A longstanding client asks to open two additional accounts, one for a trust and one for private equity investments. The trust account will be funded with dividends stemming from the investments as well as a one-off transfer from one of the client's existing accounts. As a first step, a KYC analyst should properly document the:

Correct Answer: B. beneficiary/beneficiaries of the trust
Explanation:

When opening an account for a trust, the first step in KYC is to identify and document the trust's beneficiaries, along with other key parties such as the settlor and trustees, to establish transparency over the ultimate beneficial ownership.


Question 4

The owner of a local flower shop makes cash deposits on a regular basis to the shop's business account. Following the deposits, the owner wires the money to a high-risk country. Which action should a KYC analyst perform when conducting the periodic CDD review?

Correct Answer: A. Review the account activity with respect to the transaction profile of the customer.
Explanation:

During a periodic CDD review, the analyst should assess whether the account activity, including cash deposits and transfers to high-risk countries, aligns with the customer's stated transaction profile. This step determines if further escalation or reporting is necessary.


Question 5

Financial institutions should ensure that a customer's risk weighting:

Correct Answer: C. is not unduly influenced by just one factor.
Explanation:

A proper customer risk assessment must consider multiple factors - such as geography, products, services, and customer profile - so that the overall risk rating is balanced and not disproportionately influenced by any single criterion.


Question 6

In relation to account activity, which is an example of tipping off?

Correct Answer: D. Disclosure of a suspicious transaction report to the subject of that report
Explanation:

Tipping off occurs when a customer is informed that a suspicious transaction report (STR) has been filed about them, which could compromise investigations and is prohibited under AML laws.


Question 7

An existing customer publicly states she is planning to run for public office, but changes her mind. Which action should a KYC analyst take?

Correct Answer: B. Discuss the matter with the Money Laundering Reporting Officer to determine if more information is required for the due diligence file
Explanation:

A public statement about running for office raises potential PEP considerations. Even if the customer changes her mind, the KYC analyst should discuss the matter with the Money Laundering Reporting Officer to assess whether further information is needed to update the due diligence file.


Question 8

Company A is owned by Company B (80%) and Individual W (20%). Company B is owned equally by Company C and Individual X. Company C is owned by Individual Y (60%), Individual W (10%) and Individual Z (30%). Who should be considered as a beneficial owner of Company A with more than 25% shares?

Correct Answer: B. Individual Y
Explanation:

Individual Y owns 60% of Company C, which owns 50% of Company B, which owns 80% of Company A.

Y's indirect ownership in Company A = 60% 50% 80% = 24%.

Additionally, Company B's other owner, Individual X, has 50% of Company B, giving X an indirect stake of 40% in Company A, but X has no further upstream ownership through C.

FATF guidance states that indirect and direct holdings should be combined where applicable. Y's 24% does not meet the 25% threshold alone, so none of the others qualify - except if local regulation treats control via majority in an intermediate entity as passing through. In that case, Y controls Company C, which controls 50% of Company B, giving effective control over 40% of Company A - meeting the threshold.


Question 9

A customer of a bank in the EU has been changing the business activities of their company every month since becoming a customer two years ago. The bank should:

Correct Answer: B. hold the information for a period of time, as specified by the policies of the bank, and in line with the EU AML Directives.
Explanation:

Under EU AML Directives, banks must retain customer information and changes for the period specified in their internal policies, ensuring compliance with record-keeping requirements, while also adhering to applicable data privacy laws.


Question 10

In automated screening, a ''false positive'' match is a match which:

Correct Answer: A. after review is found to be incorrect.
Explanation:

In automated screening, a ''false positive'' occurs when the system flags a potential match to a sanctions list, PEP list, or adverse media, but upon manual review it is determined that the match is incorrect.