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Free ACFE Certified Fraud Examiner - Fraud Prevention and Deterrence Exam CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam Questions

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Question 1

Julia, an internal auditor, is formalizing a process to evaluate the effectiveness of the company's control system over time, including both ongoing evaluations and periodic separate evaluations. Julia's initiative BEST pertains to which component of the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission's (COSO) Internal Control---Integrated Framework?

Correct Answer: C. Monitoring
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth

The COSO framework outlines monitoring as one of its five core components, which involves evaluating the effectiveness of internal controls over time. Monitoring includes both ongoing evaluations and separate evaluations, which is exactly what Julia is initiating. This distinguishes monitoring (correct) from control activities (which pertain to execution of policies), risk assessment (which identifies and analyzes risks), and control environment (which is the tone at the top).


Question 2

(Cedric is an internal auditor with XYZ Company. Cedric's supervisor, James, is the chief audit executive (CAE) and the fraud risk assessment sponsor. James has tasked Cedric with drafting an email communication regarding XYZ's upcoming fraud risk assessment process. Which of the following is a best practice that Cedric should implement?)

Correct Answer: B. Cedric's communication should be sent from James's email address.
Explanation:

The Fraud Risk Assessment chapter emphasizes the importance of educating employees and openly promoting the fraud risk assessment process. It also explains that the right sponsor is critical and that an influential leader should formally support and communicate the process. Because James is the chief audit executive and the sponsor, communications about the upcoming assessment should come from him or clearly carry his authority. Sending the message from the sponsor's email address reinforces legitimacy, organizational support, and employee attention. By contrast, keeping the communication limited to the board, making it overly generic, or intentionally vague would undermine the manual's guidance to openly promote the process and prepare the organization effectively. Thus, the best practice is for the communication to be sent from James's email address.


Question 3

Which of the following is TRUE regarding International Standard on Auditing (ISA) 240?

Correct Answer: C. ISA 240 provides guidance regarding the auditor's responsibility to consider fraud in an audit of financial statements.

Question 4

Which of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE way for management to respond to incidents of fraud within an organization?

Correct Answer: D. Reporting known incidents of fraud to law enforcement
Explanation:

The Fraud Prevention Programs chapter states that management's handling of known fraud incidents is an important part of the organization's anti-fraud program. The manual explains that a company must make clear it has zero tolerance for fraud and that failing to punish perpetrators consistently makes the fraud prevention program less effective, if not useless. It further notes that having a public record of the incident can be important and specifically says that reporting known incidents of fraud to law enforcement can be an effective step in making the organization's zero-tolerance stance clear. This approach reinforces deterrence, demonstrates seriousness, and supports consistent consequences. Therefore, among the listed choices, reporting known incidents of fraud to law enforcement is the most effective response.


Question 5

For Its compliance program to be effective, an organization must perform procedures to ensure management hires only ethical Individuals who exercise a substantial measure of discretion In acting on the organization's behalf

Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation:

Importance of Hiring Ethical Individuals:

Ethical hiring practices are foundational to an effective compliance program. Employees with a high measure of discretion can significantly impact organizational behavior and risk.

Pre-hiring background checks, ethical screening, and thorough interviews help mitigate the risk of unethical behavior.

Conclusion:For a compliance program to be effective, management must ensure ethical hiring practices.


Question 6

Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE regarding best practices that organizations can take to protect and support whistleblowers?

Correct Answer: C. Organizations should publicize their whistleblower policies and procedures to individuals both inside and outside of the organization.
Explanation:

An effective whistleblower program must be visible, accessible, and trusted. Publicizing whistleblower policies and reporting procedures to both internal and external parties helps ensure that employees, vendors, customers, and other stakeholders know how to report suspected misconduct. This supports fraud prevention because tips are one of the most important ways fraud is detected. Option A is too punitive and could discourage good-faith reporting. Option B is incorrect because whistleblower protections should not be limited to lower-level employees; retaliation can affect anyone. Option D is impractical because a policy cannot list every possible form of misconduct. Instead, organizations should communicate reporting channels, anti-retaliation protections, confidentiality expectations, and procedures for handling concerns. Therefore, option C is the most accurate best practice.


Question 7

Which of the following is NOT one of the three general approaches used to control corporate crime?

Correct Answer: D. Media blacklisting of the organization
Explanation:

Three General Approaches to Controlling Corporate Crime:

Government Intervention:Strong regulations and enforcement to ensure accountability.

Voluntary Corporate Changes:Encouraging ethical practices through organizational policies.

Consumer Action:Pressure from consumers demanding corporate responsibility.

Why D is Incorrect:

Media blacklisting is not a formal or systematic approach to controlling corporate crime. It is a consequence rather than a preventive or corrective measure.


ACFE and corporate governance frameworks emphasize formal mechanisms like government intervention and organizational self-regulation.

Question 8

In the area of criminological theory, compliance is the theory that tries to prevent crime by providing economic incentives for voluntary conformity to the laws and using administrative efforts to control violations before they occur.

Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation:

Understanding Compliance Theory:

Compliance theory emphasizes preventing crime through incentives for voluntary adherence to laws and proactive administrative measures.

By addressing potential violations early, compliance theory aims to deter criminal behavior before it occurs.

Application of the Theory:

Examples include economic benefits for following regulations and monitoring mechanisms to identify early signs of noncompliance.

Conclusion:The statement accurately describes compliance theory.


Question 9

Which of the following statements about the fraud risk assessment process Is MOST ACCURATE?

Correct Answer: A. The fraud risk assessment can be effectively conducted by people inside or outside of the organization.
Explanation:

Conducting a Fraud Risk Assessment:

Both internal and external parties can effectively conduct fraud risk assessments.

Internal teams provide organizational insight, while external parties bring objectivity and specialized expertise.

Analysis of Other Options:

B . External party only:Independence is important but not mandatory for effectiveness.

C . Belief that fraud cannot happen:This would bias the process and render the assessment ineffective.

D . Limiting management's influence:Management should actively participate to ensure comprehensive insights.

Conclusion:Fraud risk assessments can be effectively conducted by both internal and external parties.


Question 10

Which of the following factors is the determining aspect of white-collar crime according to modern criminological studies?

Correct Answer: B. Organizational opportunity

Question 11

Which of the following Is one of the components of the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission's (COSO) Enterprise Risk Management---Integrating with Strategy and Performance?

Correct Answer: D. Governance and culture
Explanation:

Components of COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM):

The COSO ERM framework emphasizes the integration of risk management with strategy and performance, comprising the following components:

Governance and culture.

Strategy and objective-setting.

Performance.

Review and revision.

Information, communication, and reporting.

Why D is Correct:

Governance and culture set the foundation for an organization's risk management practices by establishing oversight, ethical values, and the operating structure.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A (Independent monitoring):Monitoring is part of internal control, not specifically ERM.

B (Operating environment):Not a COSO ERM component.

C (Risk tolerance):A concept within ERM but not a standalone component.


Question 12

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the components of the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission's (COSO) Internal Control---Integrated Framework (the Framework)?

Correct Answer: A. Determining the effectiveness of an organization's internal control system involves assessing whether all of the identified components are in place and functioning effectively.

Question 13

According to ACFE research, which of the following is TRUE?

Correct Answer: C. An unwillingness to share duties is the most reported red flag displayed by fraud perpetrators prior to the detection of their crime.
Explanation:

ACFE research highlights that an unwillingness to share duties is one of the most common red flags exhibited by fraud perpetrators. This behavior often indicates a desire to conceal fraudulent activities.Most fraudsters do not have prior convictions, and frauds committed by executives tend to cause higher losses compared to those committed by staff-level employees.


Question 14

Aaron, a government auditor, is conducting a financial statement audit of a public-sector entity in accordance with the International Standards of Supreme Audit Institutions. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Aaron's consideration of fraud during this engagement?

Correct Answer: C. Aaron likely does not have the ability to withdraw from the engagement even if fraud is identified during the audit.
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth

Government auditors typically cannot unilaterally withdraw from an audit engagement, even in cases where fraud is identified. Public-sector audits often follow mandates from higher authorities or statutes that require the auditor to continue and report findings to oversight bodies. Additionally, fraud and abuse (including misconduct and misuse of assets) are relevant to government audits under ISSAIs, contrary to A and B. Option D is incorrect because public-sector audit objectives are often broader, encompassing compliance, performance, and integrity aspects.


Question 15

Which of the following is an example of organizational crime?

Correct Answer: D. Management of several construction companies engaging In bid rigging
Explanation:

Definition of Organizational Crime:

Organizational crime involves illegal actions conducted by or on behalf of organizations to benefit the organization or its management.

Why D is Correct:

Bid rigging is a classic example of organizational crime, where multiple companies collude to manipulate competitive bidding processes for mutual benefit.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A, B, and C:These represent individual crimes for personal gain, not organizational-level misconduct.

Reference for All Questions:

COSO Internal Control--Integrated Framework.

Criminological theories and studies on deterrence and organizational crime.

Diane Vaughan's research on organizational factors contributing to deviance.