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Free AGA Examination 3: Governmental Financial Management and Control (GFMC) GFMC Exam Questions

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Question 1

According to OMB Circular A-50, who holds personal responsibility for ensuring that disagreements with audit

findings and recommendations are resolved?

Correct Answer: D. audit follow-up official
Explanation:

What Does OMB Circular A-50 Require?

OMB Circular A-50 establishes policies for resolving and following up on audit findings and recommendations. It assigns personal responsibility to an audit follow-up official within the agency for ensuring that disagreements with audit findings are resolved and that corrective actions are implemented.

Why Is the Audit Follow-Up Official Responsible?

The follow-up official ensures the agency responds appropriately to audit findings, tracks corrective actions, and resolves disagreements in a timely manner. This ensures accountability and compliance with audit recommendations.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . Comptroller General: The Comptroller General leads the GAO and oversees audits but is not responsible for resolving disagreements within agencies.

B . OMB Deputy Director for Management: Provides guidance on audit policies but does not hold personal responsibility for resolving disagreements.

C . Inspector General: Performs audits and investigations but does not resolve disagreements over audit findings.

Reference and Documents:

OMB Circular A-50: Specifies that the audit follow-up official holds responsibility for resolving disagreements.

GAO Yellow Book: Discusses the roles and responsibilities of various officials in audit processes.


Question 2

Which of the following is a forensic technique used to quantify the impact of fraud?

Correct Answer: B. computer-assisted audit techniques
Explanation:

What Are Computer-Assisted Audit Techniques (CAATs)?

CAATs are specialized tools used in forensic accounting and auditing to analyze large volumes of data for patterns, anomalies, and irregularities that may indicate fraud.

These techniques help quantify the impact of fraud by identifying discrepancies, overpayments, or unaccounted transactions.

Why Are CAATs Used for Quantifying Fraud?

CAATs can efficiently analyze transactional data, calculate losses, and determine the extent of financial damage caused by fraud.

Examples include using software to detect duplicate payments, inflated invoices, or unauthorized transactions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . Test of controls: Tests of controls evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls but do not quantify the impact of fraud.

C . Data integrity: Ensuring data integrity is important, but it does not specifically address quantifying fraud.

D . Benchmarking: Benchmarking compares performance metrics but does not analyze or quantify fraud.

Reference and Documents:

GAO Fraud Prevention Framework: Highlights the use of CAATs in forensic accounting.

AICPA Forensic Accounting Guidelines: Recommends CAATs for fraud detection and quantification.


Question 3

In an attestation engagement, which party would make an assertion about a subject matter?

Correct Answer: A. management
Explanation:

What Is an Attestation Engagement? An attestation engagement is a type of professional service where an independent practitioner (typically an auditor or CPA) evaluates and provides a report on assertions made by another party about a specific subject matter. These engagements follow standards set by organizations like the AICPA or GAO.

Who Makes the Assertion?

Management's Role: Management is the party responsible for making an assertion about the subject matter under review. For example, management might assert that internal controls are effective or that financial statements are fairly presented.

Auditor/Practitioner's Role: The auditor or practitioner examines the evidence related to the assertion and provides an opinion or conclusion based on that examination.

User's Role: The users are the stakeholders (e.g., investors, regulators) who rely on the practitioner's report, but they do not make assertions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B . Auditor/Practitioner: The auditor or practitioner evaluates the assertion made by management, not the other way around.

C . Practitioner: See above---practitioners don't make assertions.

D . User: Users are the intended audience of the attestation report, not the party making assertions.

Reference and Documents:

AICPA Attestation Standards (SSAEs): Clarifies the role of management in making assertions during attestation engagements.

GAO's Government Auditing Standards (Yellow Book): Provides additional guidance on the roles of parties in attestation engagements.


Question 4

Given the information below, which control would be the lowest priority?

Asset $Amount at Risk Cost of Control

Correct Answer: B. Asset B $6,000 $ 2,500
Explanation:

How to Prioritize Controls Based on Cost and Risk:

The priority of a control is based on its cost-effectiveness. Controls that protect assets with higher risk exposure relative to the cost of the control should be prioritized. The formula to calculate cost-effectiveness is: Cost-Effectiveness=CostofControlAssetAmountatRisk\text{Cost-Effectiveness} = \frac{\text{Cost of Control}}{\text{Asset Amount at Risk}}Cost-Effectiveness=AssetAmountatRiskCostofControl

Lower ratios indicate more cost-effective controls.

Calculations:

Asset A: $15,000 / $150,000 = 0.10 (10%)

Asset B: $2,500 / $6,000 = 0.42 (42%)

Asset C: $50,000 / $2,000,000 = 0.025 (2.5%)

Asset D: $20,000 / $500,000 = 0.04 (4%)

Lowest Priority:

Asset B has the highest ratio (42%), meaning it is the least cost-effective and should be the lowest priority for controls.

Reference and Documents:

COSO Internal Control Framework: Discusses cost-benefit analysis for prioritizing controls.

GAO Risk Management Guide: Emphasizes evaluating control cost-effectiveness relative to asset risk.


Question 5

Efficient inventory management will result in

Correct Answer: C. fewer instances of work stoppage.
Explanation:

What Is Efficient Inventory Management?

Efficient inventory management ensures that an organization has the right amount of inventory at the right time to meet operational needs without overstocking or understocking.

Proper inventory management minimizes disruptions to operations, including work stoppages due to lack of necessary materials or supplies.

Why Is Fewer Instances of Work Stoppage the Correct Answer?

Efficient inventory management ensures that required inventory is available when needed, reducing the risk of work delays or stoppages caused by inventory shortages.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . A low inventory turnover ratio: A low turnover ratio often indicates overstocking or slow-moving inventory, which is not a sign of efficiency.

B . High write-offs of obsolete inventory: Efficient management reduces obsolete inventory, leading to fewer write-offs, not more.

D . High total asset turnover: While efficient inventory management may contribute to overall asset efficiency, it does not directly result in a high total asset turnover ratio.

Reference and Documents:

GAO Guide on Inventory Management: Emphasizes the role of inventory management in avoiding operational disruptions.

Best Practices for Inventory Management (AGA): Highlights reduced work stoppages as a key benefit of effective inventory control.


Question 6

An agency benefit program allows employees who commute by public transit up to 10 free taxi trips home per

calendar year. Employees can use the program for personal or family health emergencies. The most appropriate

method to check for abuse of this program is

Correct Answer: D. requesting records from a random sample of employees to verify they used transit on the day they used the taxi services.
Explanation:

Why Verify Transit Use Before Taxi Use?

The program is intended for employees who commute by public transit. Verifying transit use on the day the taxi service was used ensures employees are adhering to program rules.

Random sampling is cost-effective and practical for identifying abuse without needing to review all records.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . Looking for individuals using the service more than 10 times: This only identifies overuse but does not confirm whether program rules were followed.

B . Checking destination addresses for hospitals/clinics: This assumes all emergencies involve medical visits, which is not always the case.

C . Matching destination addresses to home addresses: This does not confirm transit use and may not identify abuse of the program.

Reference and Documents:

GAO Fraud Prevention Guide: Recommends using random sampling to check compliance with program rules.

Best Practices for Internal Controls in Benefit Programs: Emphasizes verifying eligibility and usage to detect potential abuse.


Question 7

The Prompt Payment Act requires federal agencies to pay

Correct Answer: B. interest when an invoice is paid late.
Explanation:

Overview of the Prompt Payment Act (PPA):

The Prompt Payment Act (31 U.S.C. Chapter 39) requires federal agencies to pay vendors for goods and services in a timely manner.

If payment is not made within the required time frame (usually 30 days after receiving a proper invoice), the agency must pay interest penalties to the vendor for the late payment.

Explanation of Answer Choices:

A . Invoices immediately when received: Incorrect. Federal agencies are not required to pay invoices immediately; they must process payments within the specified timeframe.

B . Interest when an invoice is paid late: Correct. Agencies must pay interest penalties for late payments.

C . Invoices no later than 60 days after receipt of the invoice: Incorrect. The standard timeframe is 30 days unless otherwise specified in the contract.


Prompt Payment Act, 31 U.S.C. Chapter 39.

Question 8

In a performance aygit, due professional care is used to

Correct Answer: A. obtain sufficient and competent evidence.
Explanation:

Performance Audit Overview:

A performance audit focuses on evaluating the economy, efficiency, and effectiveness of government programs or activities.

Due professional care is a requirement in Government Auditing Standards (Yellow Book), ensuring auditors perform their duties responsibly and with professional judgment.

Key Requirement: Sufficient and Competent Evidence:

Auditors must collect sufficient and reliable evidence to support their findings, conclusions, and recommendations. This is the cornerstone of 'due professional care.'

Explanation of Answer Choices:

A . Obtain sufficient and competent evidence: Correct. This ensures audit findings are supported by reliable, documented evidence.

B . Determine scope: While part of audit planning, it is not directly related to due professional care.

C . Set materiality of financial statements: This applies to financial audits, not performance audits.

D . Present the findings in accordance with GAAP: GAAP is not a requirement for performance audits.


GAO, Government Auditing Standards (Yellow Book).

Association of Government Accountants (AGA), Performance Auditing Practices.

Question 9

When considering materiality during the planning phase for the field work for a financial audit, the dollar threshold for materiality is determined by the

Correct Answer: A. auditor.
Explanation:

Materiality in Auditing:

Materiality refers to the significance of misstatements or omissions in financial statements that could influence the decisions of users relying on those statements.

During the planning phase of a financial audit, the auditor determines the dollar threshold for materiality based on professional judgment, considering the size and nature of the auditee's operations and the needs of financial statement users.

Why the Auditor Determines Materiality:

The auditor has the responsibility to form an independent opinion on the financial statements and must determine materiality thresholds to design audit procedures effectively.

Materiality thresholds guide the extent of testing and ensure the audit focuses on areas most likely to impact decision-making.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B . Auditee: The auditee provides the information, but it does not decide the materiality threshold.

C . Auditor in consultation with the auditee: The auditor may consult with the auditee for context, but the final determination is solely the auditor's responsibility.

D . Audit committee: While the audit committee oversees the audit, it does not set materiality thresholds.

Reference and Documents:

GAAS (Generally Accepted Auditing Standards): States that materiality is determined by the auditor's judgment.

AICPA AU-C Section 320: Provides guidance on materiality in planning and performing audits.


Question 10

Who holds primary responsibility for establishing internal controls?

Correct Answer: C. management
Explanation:

Responsibility for Internal Controls:

Management holds the primary responsibility for establishing, implementing, and maintaining an organization's internal control system.

This responsibility is outlined in frameworks such as COSO's Internal Control - Integrated Framework and the GAO's Green Book.

Roles of Other Parties:

A . Accountants: While accountants may assist in designing or assessing controls, they are not primarily responsible.

B . Internal auditors: Their role is to evaluate the effectiveness of controls, not establish them.

D . Audit committee: Provides oversight but does not implement or design controls.


COSO, Internal Control - Integrated Framework.

GAO, Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government (Green Book).