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Free AICPA CPA Business Environment and Concepts CPA-Business Exam Questions

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Question 1

Gross domestic product includes which of the following measures?

Correct Answer: C. The total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in one year.
Explanation:

Choice 'c' is correct. Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total dollar (monetary) value of all new final products and services produced with the economy in a given time perioD. The emphasis is on the final goods and services.

Choice 'a' is incorrect. The size of a population that must share a given output within one year is not a part of the GDP calculation.

Choice 'b' is incorrect. The negative (or positive) externalities of the production process of a nation within one year are not a part of the GDP calculation. In economics, externalities are the effects that the acts of consumers or producers have on each other. Externalities range from technological changes to changes in the range of options available to consumers. Externalities may also be regarded as the unanticipated side effects of courses of action.

Choice 'd' is incorrect. The total monetary value of goods and services, including barter transactions, is not a part of the GDP calculation. GDP includes only monetary value, not barter value.


Question 2

Corbin Inc. can issue three-month commercial paper with a face value of $1,000,000 for $980,000. Transaction costs would be $1,200. The effective annualized percentage cost of the financing, based on a 360-day year, would be:

Correct Answer: C. 8.65%
Explanation:

Choice 'c' is correct. The cost to issue the commercial paper is the $20,000 original issue discount ($1 million - $980,000), plus transaction costs of $1,200 for a total of $21,200. Therefore, it costs $21,200 to borrow $980,000 for 3 months. The 3-month interest cost is 2.16% ($21,200 / $980,000).

The annual interest cost is 8.65%

Choices 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect, per the above calculation.


Question 3

In inventory management, the safety stock will tend to increase if the:

Correct Answer: C. Variability of lead-time increases.
Explanation:

Choice 'c' is correct. If lead times became more variable, the amount of safety stock needed to reduce the risk of stock outs will increase.

Choice 'a' is incorrect. A high carrying cost would decrease safety stock.

Choice 'b' is incorrect. A lower stockout cost would decrease safety stock.

Choice 'd' is incorrect. If order costs decrease, then inventory will be ordered more frequently and less safety stock will be needed.


Question 4

The determination of gross domestic product (GDP) by the expenditure approach would include:

Correct Answer: A. Net exports.
Explanation:

Choice 'a' is correct. The expenditure approach to computing GDP includes:

Consumption

Net exports

Government expenditures

Capital investment

Choices 'b', 'c', and 'd' are incorrect, per the Explanation: above.


Question 5

The annual tax depreciation expense on an asset reduces income taxes by an amount equal to:

Correct Answer: C. The firm's marginal tax rate times the depreciation amount.
Explanation:

Choice 'c' is correct. The annual tax depreciation expense reduces income taxes by an amount equal to the firm's marginal tax rate (the tax on the next dollar of income) times the depreciation amount.

Choices 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect, per above.


Question 6

Which of the following actions is the acknowledged preventive measure for a period of deflation?

Correct Answer: B. Increasing the money supply.
Explanation:

Choice 'b' is correct. Deflation is a general decline in the overall price level (i.e., when the inflation rate is negative). Increasing the money supply causes the overall price level to rise. As a result, it helps eliminate deflation.

Choice 'a' is incorrect. Increasing interest rates causes aggregate demand to shift left. As a result, the aggregate price level will fall even further. This will exasperate deflation.

Choice 'c' is not wrong but it is not as good an answer as 'b'. A decrease in interest rates causes the aggregate demand curve to shift right. As a result, the aggregate price level will rise. This helps eliminate deflation. However, there are times when interest rates are already so low that lowering interest rates is not an option. Thus, the preferred or 'acknowledged' preventative measure for deflation is increasing the money supply.

Choice 'd' is incorrect. Decreasing the money supply causes the overall price level to fall. This would obviously exasperate deflation.


Question 7

Limitations of the information provided by total asset turnover include:

Correct Answer: D. When making the calculation, total assets may need to be refined by the elimination of assets that do not relate to sales as the inclusion of these items could distort the measure.
Explanation:

Choice 'd' is correct. When calculating the turnover, total assets may need to be refined by the elimination of assets that do not relate to sales as the inclusion of these items could distort the measure.

Choice 'a' is incorrect. This option pertains to gross profit margin.

Choice 'b' is incorrect. This option pertains to return on the investment in assets.

Choice 'c' is incorrect. This option pertains to residual income.


Question 8

A multiperiod project has a positive net present value. Which of the following statements is correct regarding its required rate of return?

Correct Answer: B. Less than the project's internal rate of return.
Explanation:

Choice 'b' is correct. The required rate of return must be less than the project's internal rate of return (IRR). The IRR is the rate earned by an investment that equates to a net present value (NPV) of zero. By definition, a project with a positive NPV will have an IRR greater than the required rate of return used to compute that NPV.

Choice 'a' is incorrect. Typically, a company will use its own weighted-average cost of capital (WACC) as the hurdle rate for computing net present value (NPV). A positive NPV would not likely give any indication of the relationship between required rate of return and WACC. The required rate of return and WACC are likely equal.

Choice 'c' is incorrect. Typically, a company will use its own weighted-average cost of capital (WACC) as the hurdle rate for computing net present value (NPV). A positive NPV would not likely give any indication of the relationship between required rate of return and WACC. The required rate of return and WACC are likely equal.

Choice 'd' is incorrect. The required rate of return must be less than the project's internal rate of return (IRR). The IRR is the rate earned by an investment that equates to a net present value (NPV) of zero. By definition, a project with a positive NPV will have an IRR greater than the required rate of return used to compute that NPV.


Question 9

Dough Distributors has decided to increase its daily muffin purchases by 100 boxes. A box of muffins costs $2 and sells for $3 through regular stores. Any boxes not sold through regular stores are sold through Dough's thrift store for $1. Dough assigns the following probabilities to selling additional boxes:

What is the expected value of Dough's decision to buy 100 additional boxes of muffins?

Correct Answer: C. $52
Explanation:

Choice 'c' is correct. The expected value of a decision is computed by multiplying the probability of each outcome by its value or profit. Each outcome is then added.

There is a 60% probability that Dough will sell 60 of the 100 additional boxes through regular stores and that means that Dough would have a 60% chance of making a profit of $20 (60 boxes at a $1 profit ($3 - $2) sold through the regular stores and 40 boxes at a $1 loss ($1 - $2) sold through the thrift stores).

There is a 40% probability that Dough will have a profit of $40 (100 boxes at a $1 profit through the regular store sales and zero boxes sold at a loss through the thrift store).

Choice 'a' is incorrect. The expected value of a decision is computed by multiplying the probability of each outcome by its value or profit.

Choice 'b' is incorrect. The expected value of a decision is computed by multiplying the probability of each outcome by its value or profit.

Choice 'd' is incorrect. The expected value of a decision is computed by multiplying the probability of each outcome by its value or profit.


Question 10

The capital structure of a firm includes bonds with a coupon rate of 12% and an effective interest rate is 14%. The corporate tax rate is 30%. What is the firm's net cost of debt?

Correct Answer: B. 9.8%
Explanation:

Choice 'b' is correct. The net cost of debt is computed as the effective interest rate net of tax, or 14% x .70 = 9.8%. The question is trying to trick the candidate into using the coupon rate of 12% rather than the effective interest rate. The coupon rate is used only if it is the same as the effective interest rate and there are no flotation costs.

Choice 'a' is incorrect. The net cost of debt is computed as the effective interest rate net of tax, or 14% x .70 = 9.8%, not the coupon rate of 12% x .70 = 8.4%.

Choice 'c' is incorrect. The net cost of debt is computed as the effective interest rate net of tax, or 14% x .70 = 9.8%, not the coupon rate of 12% by itself. The cost of debt is computed on an after-tax basis and uses the effective interest rate instead of the coupon rate.

Choice 'd' is incorrect. The net cost of debt is computed as the effective interest rate net of tax, or 14% x .70 = 9.8%, not the effective interest rate of 14% by itself. The cost of debt is computed on an after-tax basis.


Question 11

The CPI jumps from 131 in year 1 to 136.5 in year 2. What is annual inflation rate?

Correct Answer: A. 4.2%
Explanation:

Choice 'a' is correct. The inflation rate is measured as:


Question 12

Which of the following statements is(are) correct regarding the methods a target corporation may use to ward off a takeover attempt?

I The target corporation may make an offer ("self-tender") to acquire stock from its own shareholders.

II The target corporation may seek an injunction against the acquiring corporation on the grounds that the attempted takeover violates federal antitrust law.

Correct Answer: C. Both I and II
Explanation:

Choice 'c' is correct.

Rule: A tender offer is a general invitation by a bidder to the shareholders of a target company to tender their shares to the bidder at a specified price during a specified time. A target of a takeover may ward off a tender offer by offering to repurchase shares from its shareholders. If a takeover will violate federal antitrust law, a court will enjoin the takeover.

Choices 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect, per the above rule.


Question 13

Which of the following represents a firm's average gross receivable balance?

I Days' sales in receivables x accounts receivable turnover.

II Average daily sales x average collection period.

III Net sales average gross receivables.

Correct Answer: C. II only.
Explanation:

Choice 'c' is correct. II only - Average daily sales ($27,397) Average collection period (36.5) = $1,000,000 Avg gross A/R

Not I Days' sales in receivables (36.5) AR turnover 10 = 365 days in year.

Not III Net sales ($10,000,000) Avg gross receivables ($1,000,000) = 10 AR turnover.


Question 14

Gartshore Inc. is a mail-order book company. The Company recently changed its credit policy in an attempt to increase sales. Gartshore's variable cost ratio is 70 percent and its required rate of return is 12 percent. The company projects that annual sales will increase from the current level of $360,000 to $432,000, but the average collection period on receivables will go from 30 days to 40 days. Ignoring any tax implications, what is the cost of carrying the additional investment in accounts receivable, using a 360-day year?

Correct Answer: A. $1,512
Explanation:

Choice 'a' is correct. The cost of carrying accounts receivable now is the variable cost of creating the account receivable times the cost of that capital during the collection period. The cost of the investment in accounts receivable is now:

Choice 'c' is incorrect. This considers the entire account receivable as a cost.

Choices 'b' and 'd' are incorrect, per the above calculation.


Question 15

An increase in the minimum wage:

I Will move employers down the labor demand curve, causing the quantity of labor demanded to fall.

II Is likely to increase the supply of labor, as more people will be willing to work for the higher wage.

Correct Answer: D. Neither I nor II
Explanation:

Choice 'd' is correct; neither statement I nor statement II are correct. Statement I is incorrect, as an increase in the minimum wage will move employers up, not down, the labor demand curve, causing the quantity of labor demanded to fall. Statement II is incorrect, as an increase in the minimum wage leads to a decrease in the quantity demanded of labor and an increase in the quantity supplied of labor. It does not increase the supply of labor, only the quantity supplied of labor.

Choices 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect, per the above.