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Free Amazon AWS Certified Security - Specialty SCS-C03 Exam Questions

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Question 1

A public subnet contains two Amazon EC2 instances. The subnet has a custom network ACL. A security engineer is designing a solution to improve the subnet security. The solution must allow outbound traffic to an internet service that uses TLS through port 443. The solution also must deny inbound traffic that is destined for MySQL port 3306.

Which network ACL rule set meets these requirements?

Correct Answer: B. Use inbound rule 100 to deny traffic on TCP port 3306. Use inbound rule 200 to allow traffic on TCP port range 1024-65535. Use outbound rule 100 to allow traffic on TCP port 443.
Explanation:

Network ACLs arestateless, so you must allow both the outbound request and the inboundreturn traffic. For outbound TLS to an internet service on TCP443, you need an outbound allow rule permitting destination port 443. The return traffic from the internet service will come back to the instance'sephemeral port(typically in the range 1024--65535) on the inbound path. Therefore, you must allow inbound TCP traffic on the ephemeral port range to support established outbound connections.

At the same time, the requirement is todeny inbound MySQL (TCP 3306). Because NACLs process rules in order (lowest rule number first), placing an explicit deny for port 3306 as a low-numbered inbound rule ensures that traffic destined for MySQL is blocked even if there are broader allow rules later.

Option B does exactly this: it denies inbound TCP 3306 first, then allows inbound ephemeral ports for return traffic, and allows outbound TCP 443. Option A/D incorrectly allow inbound 443 (not needed for outbound-only TLS) and fail to explicitly allow ephemeral return traffic correctly. Option C allows ephemeral inbound first, and then denies 3306 later; while 3306 is not in the ephemeral range, B is the clean, canonical ordering and matches the intended stateless-return-traffic pattern most directly.


Question 2

A security engineer has designed a VPC to segment private traffic from public traffic. The VPC includes two Availability Zones. The security engineer has provisioned each Availability Zone with one private subnet and one public subnet. The security engineer has created three route tables for use with the environment. One route table is for the public subnets, and two route tables are for the private subnets (one route table for the private subnet in each Availability Zone).

The security engineer discovers that all four subnets are attempting to route traffic out through the internet gateway that is attached to the VPC.

Which combination of steps should the security engineer take to remediate this scenario? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer: A. Verify that a NAT gateway has been provisioned in the public subnet in each Availability Zone.; D. Modify the route tables that are associated with each of the private subnets. Create a new route for the destination 0.0.0.0/0. Specify the NAT gateway in the public subnet of the same Availability Zone as the target of the route.
Explanation:

In a properly segmented VPC architecture,public subnets route internet-bound traffic to an internet gateway, whileprivate subnets route outbound internet traffic through a NAT gatewaythat resides in a public subnet. According to the AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide and Amazon VPC documentation, private subnets must never have a direct route to an internet gateway.

The issue described indicates that private subnets are incorrectly routing traffic directly to the internet gateway. To remediate this, aNAT gateway must be provisioned in each public subnetto ensure high availability across Availability Zones. This satisfies the requirement that private resources can initiate outbound connections without being directly reachable from the internet.

Next, the route tables associated with theprivate subnets must be updatedso that the default route (0.0.0.0/0) points to the NAT gateway in the same Availability Zone. This ensures proper traffic flow and prevents cross-AZ dependencies.

Option B is incorrect because NAT gateways must reside in public subnets. Option C is unnecessary because local routes to the VPC CIDR range are automatically created. Option E is explicitly insecure, as it would reintroduce direct internet gateway access from private subnets.

AWS documentation consistently identifiesNAT gateways plus correct private subnet routingas the standard design for secure VPC segmentation.

AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide

Amazon VPC Route Table Documentation

AWS Well-Architected Framework -- Security Pillar


Question 3

A company needs to scan all AWS Lambda functions for code vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: B. Enable Amazon Inspector Lambda scanning.
Explanation:

Amazon Inspector provides native Lambda code vulnerability scanning. GuardDuty focuses on runtime threats, not static code analysis.


Question 4

A company runs a global ecommerce website using Amazon CloudFront. The company must block traffic from specific countries to comply with data regulations.

Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

Correct Answer: C. Use CloudFront geo restriction to deny the countries.
Explanation:

Amazon CloudFront includes a built-in geo restriction feature that allows content to be allowed or denied based on the viewer's country. According to AWS Certified Security -- Specialty documentation, CloudFront geo restriction is the most cost-effective method for country-based blocking because it does not require AWS WAF or additional rule processing.

AWS WAF geo match rules incur additional cost and are more appropriate when advanced inspection or layered security controls are required. IP-based blocking is impractical due to frequent IP changes. Geolocation headers do not enforce access control.

CloudFront geo restriction is evaluated at the edge and efficiently blocks disallowed countries with minimal latency and cost.

Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:

AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide

Amazon CloudFront Geo Restriction

AWS Edge Security Best Practices


Question 5

A company runs several applications on Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS). The company needs a solution to detect any Kubernetes security risks by monitoring Amazon EKS audit logs in addition to operating system, networking, and file events. The solution must send email alerts for any identified risks to a mailing list that is associated with a security team.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

Correct Answer: C. Enable Amazon GuardDuty. Enable EKS Protection and Runtime Monitoring for Amazon EKS in GuardDuty. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic and set the security team's mailing list as a subscriber. Use an Amazon EventBridge rule to send relevant GuardDuty events to the SNS topic.
Explanation:

Option C best meets the requirements because Amazon GuardDuty provides Kubernetes-focused threat detection for Amazon EKS by analyzingEKS control plane audit logs(EKS Protection) and combining that signal withruntime telemetryfrom the worker nodes (Runtime Monitoring). EKS audit logs capture Kubernetes API activity and authorization decisions, allowing GuardDuty to detect suspicious cluster actions such as unusual API calls, unexpected access patterns, or indicators of compromise within the cluster. Runtime Monitoring extends coverage tooperating system/process activity, network connections, and file activityon the nodes, which directly aligns with the need to monitor OS, networking, and file events in addition to audit logs.

For notifications, GuardDuty generatesfindingsthat can be delivered throughAmazon EventBridgerules. EventBridge can route relevant GuardDuty findings to anAmazon SNS topic, and SNS can sendemail alertsto the security team by subscribing the team's mailing list to the topic. This approach is fully managed, near real time, and avoids building custom log-parsing pipelines while still providing actionable alerts based on GuardDuty's curated EKS threat detections.


Question 6

A company is running an application in the eu-west-1 Region. The application uses an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key to encrypt sensitive dat

a. The company plans to deploy the application in the eu-north-1 Region. A security engineer needs to implement a key management solution for the application deployment in the new Region. The security engineer must minimize changes to the application code.

Which change should the security engineer make to the AWS KMS configuration to meet these requirements?

Correct Answer: C. Allocate a new customer managed key to eu-north-1. Create the same alias name for both keys. Configure the application deployment to use the key alias.
Explanation:

AWS KMS keys are regional resources and cannot be used across Regions. According to AWS Certified Security -- Specialty documentation, applications that are deployed in multiple Regions should use region-specific customer managed keys while referencing keys by alias instead of key ID.

By creating a new customer managed key in eu-north-1 and assigning it the same alias as the key in eu-west-1, the application code can continue to reference the alias without modification. Each Region resolves the alias to the correct local key, ensuring encryption continues to function correctly.

Option A is invalid because KMS keys are regional. Option B requires application changes. Option D introduces unsupported alias patterns.

AWS best practices recommend alias-based key references for multi-Region deployments.

Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:

AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide

AWS KMS Regional Keys and Aliases

AWS KMS Best Practices


Question 7

A company needs centralized log monitoring with automatic detection across hundreds of AWS accounts.

Which solution meets these requirements with the LEAST operational effort?

Correct Answer: A. Designate a GuardDuty administrator account and enable protections.
Explanation:

Amazon GuardDuty provides fully managed threat detection across accounts when configured with delegated administration. EKS and RDS protections enable workload-aware detection with minimal setup.

Other solutions require custom pipelines and higher operational overhead.

Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:

AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide

Amazon GuardDuty Multi-Account Architecture


Question 8

A company is operating an open-source software platform that is internet facing. The legacy software platform no longer receives security updates. The software platform operates using Amazon Route 53 weighted load balancing to send traffic to two Amazon EC2 instances that connect to an Amazon RDS cluster. A recent report suggests this software platform is vulnerable to SQL injection attacks, with samples of attacks provided. The company's security engineer must secure this system against SQL injection attacks within 24 hours. The security engineer's solution must involve the least amount of effort and maintain normal operations during implementation.

What should the security engineer do to meet these requirements?

Correct Answer: A. Create an Application Load Balancer with the existing EC2 instances as a target group. Create an AWS WAF web ACL containing rules that protect the application from this attack, then apply it to the ALB. Test to ensure the vulnerability has been mitigated, then redirect the Route 53 records to point to the ALB. Update security groups on the EC2 instances to prevent direct access from the internet.
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed 100to 150 words of Explanation From AWS Certified Security -- Specialty topics: AWS WAF protects HTTP and HTTPS application traffic by inspecting requests and applying rules such as SQL injection match statements. AWS WAF can be associated with supported resources, including Application Load Balancers, but it cannot be attached directly to EC2 instances. Creating an ALB with the existing EC2 instances as targets preserves normal application operation while allowing the web ACL to inspect and block malicious SQL injection patterns. After testing, Route 53 can be redirected to the ALB, and EC2 security groups should be restricted so users cannot bypass WAF by reaching the instances directly. Patching unsupported legacy software within 24 hours is higher effort and riskier. CloudFront with only one EC2 origin would not preserve the current two-instance weighted design.


Question 9

A security engineer needs to implement a solution to create and control the keys that a company uses for cryptographic operations. The security engineer must create symmetric keys in which the key material is generated and used within a custom key store that is backed by an AWS CloudHSM cluster. The security engineer will use symmetric and asymmetric data key pairs for local use within applications. The security engineer also must audit the use of the keys.

How can the security engineer meet these requirements?

Correct Answer: D. To create the keys, use AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) and the custom key stores with the CloudHSM cluster. For auditing, use AWS CloudTrail.
Explanation:

The requirement is to havekey material generated and used inside a custom key store backed by an AWS CloudHSM cluster. This is exactly whatAWS KMS Custom Key Storesprovide: KMS manages the keys and policies, but the cryptographic operations for those KMS keys occur in the associatedCloudHSMcluster, keeping the key material within HSM boundaries. For applications that needlocal-use data keys(both symmetric data keys and asymmetric data key pairs), KMS supports generating data keys and data key pairs that applications can use for envelope encryption and local cryptographic operations, while the master key protections remain within KMS (and within CloudHSM when using a custom key store).

For auditing, AWS best practice isAWS CloudTrail, which records KMS API calls (such as CreateKey, GenerateDataKey, GenerateDataKeyPair, Encrypt/Decrypt, etc.) and provides an immutable event history for compliance and investigation. Athena can query logs, but it is not the primary audit record source; GuardDuty is for threat detection, not authoritative key-usage auditing. Therefore, the correct combination isKMS with a CloudHSM-backed custom key storeplusCloudTrailfor auditability.


Question 10

A company receives an alert from AWS Support. The alert shows a compromised access key on a single standalone AWS account. A security engineer must determine the scope of the issue. Then, the security engineer must triage and remediate the issue.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

Correct Answer: B. Review AWS CloudTrail logs. Remove any unauthorized resources. Rotate all IAM access keys for the user that has the AWSCompromisedKeyQuarantineV3 policy attached. Remove the policy from the user.
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed 100to 150 words of Explanation From AWS Certified Security -- Specialty topics: AWSCompromisedKeyQuarantineV3 is applied by AWS when IAM user credentials are compromised or exposed, and AWS explicitly warns not to remove the policy until the support-case instructions are followed. The correct response is to first determine scope by reviewing CloudTrail activity for the compromised key, identify API calls and unauthorized resources, remove unauthorized resources, rotate or replace the compromised access keys, and only then remove the quarantine policy after remediation is complete. Deleting the user immediately can destroy useful attribution and may break legitimate dependencies. Removing the quarantine policy first is unsafe because it may restore attacker capability. CloudWatch logs alone do not provide the full account-wide API activity trail needed for scope determination.


Question 11

A company's security team wants to receive near-real-time email notifications about AWS abuse reports related to DoS attacks. An Amazon SNS topic already exists and is subscribed to by the security team.

What should the security engineer do next?

Correct Answer: B. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that matches AWS Health events for AWS_ABUSE_DOS_REPORT and publishes to SNS.
Explanation:

AWS abuse notifications are delivered as AWS Health events. According to the AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Study Guide, Amazon EventBridge integrates natively with AWS Health and can be used to detect specific event types such as AWS_ABUSE_DOS_REPORT in near real time.

By creating an EventBridge rule that filters for the abuse report event type and publishes directly to Amazon SNS, the solution remains fully managed, low latency, and cost effective.

Polling APIs introduces delay and complexity. CloudTrail does not log abuse notifications. EventBridge with AWS Health is the recommended mechanism for reacting to AWS service events.

Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:

AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide

AWS Health and EventBridge Integration

AWS Abuse Notification Handling


Question 12

A company is expanding its group of stores. On the day that each new store opens, the company wants to launch a customized web application for that store. Each store's application will have a non-production environment and a production environment. Each environment will be deployed in a separate AWS account. The company uses AWS Organizations and has an OU that is used only for these accounts.

The company distributes most of the development work to third-party development teams. A security engineer needs to ensure that each team follows the company's deployment plan for AWS resources. The security engineer also must limit access to the deployment plan to only the developers who need access. The security engineer already has created an AWS CloudFormation template that implements the deployment plan.

What should the security engineer do next to meet the requirements in theMOST secureway?

Correct Answer: A. Create an AWS Service Catalog portfolio in the organization's management account. Upload the CloudFormation template. Add the template to the portfolio's product list. Share the portfolio with the OU.
Explanation:

AWS Service Catalog is designed to allow organizations to create and manageapproved sets of CloudFormation templates, known as products, and make them available to specific accounts or organizational units (OUs). According to the AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Study Guide, Service Catalog is thepreferred governance mechanismfor enforcing standardized infrastructure deployments while maintaining strong access controls.

By creating a Service Catalog portfolio in the management account and sharing it with a specific OU, the security engineer ensures that only accounts within that OU can deploy the approved CloudFormation template. This guarantees that third-party developers can deploy infrastructureonly in accordance with the company's predefined deployment plan, without modifying or directly accessing the template itself.

Option B and D use CloudFormation modules, which are intended for reusable resource definitions but do not provide the same level ofdeployment governance, access control, and lifecycle managementas Service Catalog. Option C introduces unnecessary cross-account IAM roles, increasing the attack surface and operational complexity, which violates the ''most secure'' requirement.

AWS documentation explicitly states thatService Catalog is the recommended service for distributing standardized CloudFormation templates across AWS Organizations, while controlling who can deploy them and where.

AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide

AWS Service Catalog Administrator Guide

AWS Organizations Best Practices

AWS Well-Architected Framework -- Security Pillar


Question 13

A company's application uses standard tier SecureString parameters from AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store. The application is receiving error messages when the company tries to update a parameter. The parameter uses an AWS KMS customer managed key for encryption and decryption.

What are the reasons for the error messages? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer: A. The application does not have the kms:Encrypt permission for the customer managed key.; D. The customer managed key that is specified in the application has its key state set to Disabled.
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed 100to 150 words of Explanation From AWS Certified Security -- Specialty topics: Parameter Store uses AWS KMS to encrypt SecureString parameter values when they are created or changed. When a customer managed key is used, the caller needs explicit KMS permissions, including kms:Encrypt for creating or updating SecureString values. If the application lacks that permission, the update fails. A disabled KMS key also causes failures because AWS KMS cannot perform cryptographic operations with a disabled key. A customer managed key can encrypt many SecureString parameters; existing use by another parameter is not a problem. Standard tier SecureString parameters can use customer managed keys. Using an alias instead of a key ID is also supported, so the alias is not the cause.


Question 14

A security engineer for a company is investigating suspicious traffic on a web application in the AWS Cloud. The web application is protected by an Application Load Balancer (ALB) behind an Amazon CloudFront distribution. There is an AWS WAF web ACL associated with the ALB. The company stores AWS WAF logs in an Amazon S3 bucket.

The engineer notices that all incoming requests in the AWS WAF logs originate from a small number of IP addresses that correspond to CloudFront edge locations. The security engineer must identify the source IP addresses of the clients that are initiating the suspicious requests.

Which solution will meet this requirement?

Correct Answer: B. Inspect the X-Forwarded-For header in the AWS WAF logs to determine the original client IP addresses.
Explanation:

When Amazon CloudFront is used in front of an Application Load Balancer, CloudFront becomes the immediate source of incoming requests to the ALB. As a result, AWS WAF logs record theCloudFront edge location IP addressesas the client IPs, not the original viewer IP addresses. This behavior is explicitly documented in the AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Study Guide and the AWS WAF and CloudFront integration documentation.

To preserve the original client IP address, CloudFront automatically adds theX-Forwarded-For HTTP header, which contains the IP address of the originating client followed by any proxy addresses involved in forwarding the request. AWS WAF logs include this header, making it the authoritative source for identifying true client IP addresses when CloudFront is used.

Option A is incorrect because VPC Flow Logs capture network-level metadata and will only show CloudFront IP addresses, not the original client IPs. Option C is incorrect because disabling connection reuse does not change how client IPs are logged in AWS WAF. Option D is unnecessary and unsupported as a requirement because CloudFront already provides the required information through standard headers.

AWS documentation consistently states thatX-Forwarded-Foris the correct and supported mechanism for tracing client IPs in CloudFront-protected applications.

AWS Certified Security -- Specialty Official Study Guide

AWS WAF Developer Guide -- Logging

Amazon CloudFront Developer Guide -- Request Headers


Question 15

A company's application team wants to replace an internal application with a new AWS architecture that consists of Amazon EC2 instances, an AWS Lambda function, and an Amazon S3 bucket in a single AWS Region. After an architecture review, the security team mandates that no application network traffic can traverse the public internet at any point. The security team already has an SCP in place for the company's organization in AWS Organizations to restrict the creation of internet gateways, NAT gateways, and egress-only gateways.

Which combination of steps should the application team take to meet these requirements? (Select THREE.)

Correct Answer: A. Create an S3 endpoint that has a full-access policy for the application's VPC.; B. Create an S3 access point for the S3 bucket. Include a policy that restricts the network origin to VPCs.; F. Launch the Lambda function in a VPC.
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed 100to 150 words of Explanation From AWS Certified Security -- Specialty topics: To keep application traffic off the public internet, EC2 and Lambda resources must reach S3 through private VPC networking. An S3 gateway endpoint provides private access from the VPC to S3 without using an internet gateway or NAT gateway. An S3 access point can also be restricted to VPC origin so S3 rejects requests that do not originate from the configured VPC path. The Lambda function must run inside the VPC so its S3 traffic can use the private endpoint path. Lambda ''block public access'' is not the relevant S3 network control. Security groups cannot target S3 gateway endpoints or S3 access points as destination resources in the way the distractors describe.