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Free CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 (2026) 220-1201 Exam Questions

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Question 1

A technician is experimenting with network configurations and has connected two laptops to an unmanaged switch. The technician configured one of the laptops with a static IP address of 192.168.1.1 and the other with a static IP address of 192.168.2.2. The laptops are not communicating with each other. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue?

Correct Answer: D. The laptops do not have access to a router.

Question 2

A company provides cell phones to employees who travel internationally. An employee brings their phone to the help desk so the necessary equipment can be installed. However, the technician cannot install any new hardware on the phone. Which of the following will the technician require so the phone can connect to a different provider?

Correct Answer: C. eSIM
Explanation:

An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers who need to switch providers quickly.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 -- Install and configure mobile device network connectivity:

'eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card.'

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3


Question 3

Which of the following services allows a networked host to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network?

Correct Answer: B. DHCP
Explanation:

DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is the service that automatically assigns IP addresses and other essential network settings to devices when they join a network. Instead of manually configuring each device with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers, a DHCP server provides these settings dynamically from a defined address pool. This reduces configuration errors, prevents IP conflicts, and makes network administration easier---especially in environments with many devices or frequent changes. In the DHCP process, a client broadcasts a request, the DHCP server offers an address, the client requests that offered address, and the server acknowledges it, granting the device a lease for a specific period. The lease can be renewed, and administrators can also configure reservations to always give the same IP to a particular device based on its MAC address.

DNS is used for resolving hostnames to IP addresses, not assigning them. SMTP is for sending email between mail servers and clients. SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices. Therefore, DHCP is the correct service for automatically assigning IP addresses.


Question 4

Which of the following has the best penetration through physical objects, such as walls?

Correct Answer: A. 2.4GHz
Explanation:

2.4GHz Wi-Fi signals have better penetration through walls and other obstacles compared to 5GHz and 6GHz. Lower frequency waves (like 2.4GHz) travel farther and are less absorbed by physical barriers.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.5 -- Compare and contrast wireless networking protocols:

''The 2.4GHz frequency band offers greater range and better penetration through walls and obstacles than higher frequencies like 5GHz and 6GHz. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but are more easily absorbed by walls.''

NFC (Near Field Communication) is not a Wi-Fi technology and works only over very short distances (a few centimeters).

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.5


Question 5

Which of the following technologies is most used in portable devices?

Correct Answer: D. SODIMM
Explanation:

Portable devices such as laptops, small-form-factor computers, and mini-PCs use SODIMM (Small Outline DIMM) memory modules. CompTIA A+ explains that SODIMMs are physically smaller and consume less power than standard DIMMs, making them ideal for mobile systems where space and energy efficiency are critical. Unlike ECC memory, which is primarily used in servers, or RAID which is a storage redundancy methodology rather than a memory type SODIMM is specifically designed for compact computing devices. SATA is a storage interface, not a memory form factor.

The A+ study guide clearly lists SODIMM as the standard laptop memory type because of its compact footprint and compatibility with mobile motherboard layouts. This makes SODIMM the most widely implemented memory technology in portable devices.


Question 6

A user notices that their laptop screen starts flashing during video streaming. The screen works normally after streaming ends. Which of the following should the user do first to troubleshoot the issue?

Correct Answer: A. Update the display drivers.
Explanation:

Updating the display drivers is the best initial troubleshooting action because the problem occurs specifically while the graphics subsystem is processing streamed video. Video playback commonly uses GPU hardware acceleration, which depends on a compatible and stable graphics driver. An outdated, corrupted, or incompatible driver can cause flashing, flickering, or temporary display instability when hardware acceleration becomes active. Because the screen returns to normal after streaming ends, permanent display-panel damage is unlikely. Changing the resolution does not directly address an application-specific graphics-processing problem. Increasing virtual memory affects system memory management and would not normally correct display flashing. Disabling anti-malware protection is both unnecessary and potentially unsafe because no evidence indicates that security software is causing the issue. The driver should therefore be updated from the laptop or graphics-adapter manufacturer and the system retested.


Question 7

A technician recently replaced a user's laptop screen. Since then, the user has had trouble connecting to wireless networks. Which of the following should the technician do?

Correct Answer: C. Reconnect the antenna to the system board.
Explanation:

When a laptop screen is replaced, the technician typically removes the display bezel and may disconnect cables routed through the hinge area. The Wi-Fi antennas in most laptops are mounted inside the display assembly (often along the top edges of the screen) and their thin coax antenna leads run through the hinges to the wireless adapter connection points on the system board or directly onto the Wi-Fi card (MAIN/AUX terminals). If one or both antenna leads are left unplugged, pinched, or poorly seated during reassembly, the laptop will still detect the Wi-Fi adapter, but wireless performance will be severely degraded---weak signal strength, intermittent connections, inability to see networks reliably, or frequent dropouts.

This symptom appearing immediately after a screen replacement strongly indicates a physical antenna connection issue rather than a driver or software problem. Reinstalling drivers or resetting services would be more appropriate after OS changes or configuration corruption, not after display hardware work. Compatibility of wireless technologies is unrelated to swapping a screen. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ troubleshooting step is to open the unit and reconnect/secure the Wi-Fi antenna leads to the system board/wireless card.


Question 8

Which of the following systems most likely contains ECC memory?

Correct Answer: B. A file server
Explanation:

Error-Correcting Code (ECC) memory is designed to detect and correct single-bit memory errors, increasing system reliability and data integrity. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) hardware and memory objectives, ECC memory is most commonly used in servers and enterprise-grade systems where uptime and data accuracy are critical.

A file server is responsible for storing, managing, and serving data to many users simultaneously. Memory errors in such systems could lead to data corruption, crashes, or security issues. For this reason, servers frequently use ECC memory in combination with server-class CPUs and motherboards that support error correction.

High-end gaming consoles prioritize performance and cost efficiency rather than fault tolerance, and they do not use ECC memory. Smartphones rely on low-power mobile RAM without error correction, and laptops typically use non-ECC memory unless they are specialized workstation-class systems, which is not indicated in this question.

CompTIA emphasizes that ECC memory is associated with mission-critical environments, particularly servers and enterprise systems, making a file server the most appropriate answer.

References:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide -- RAM Types, ECC Memory, and Server Hardware


Question 9

Which of the following is an advantage of using the 2.4 GHz wireless frequency?

Correct Answer: C. Minimized structural interference
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

The CompTIA A+ wireless networking section describes key differences between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi frequencies.

2.4 GHz provides:

Better range

Better wall penetration

Better performance through structures and obstacles

This means less interference from physical structures, which is the primary advantage of 2.4 GHz over 5 GHz.

This maps directly to:

C. Minimized structural interference

Why the other options are incorrect

A . Communication without external power

Not related to Wi-Fi frequencies.

B . Security for close-proximity connections

No Wi-Fi frequency provides inherent security advantages.

D . Increased channel options

5 GHz has more channels, not 2.4 GHz.


Question 10

Which of the following is most commonly used to increase 802.11 wireless throughput speed?

Correct Answer: D. Channel width
Explanation:

The correct answer is D. Channel width.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Wireless:

Channel width refers to the size of the frequency band used for Wi-Fi communication.

Increasing channel width (e.g., from 20 MHz to 40 MHz, 80 MHz, or 160 MHz) allows more data to be transmitted at once, effectively increasing wireless throughput speed.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A . Licensed bands: Licensed spectrum is used for certain types of communication and does not directly increase Wi-Fi throughput.

B . Maximum transmission unit (MTU): MTU defines the largest packet size transmitted over a network but is not the primary factor for increasing Wi-Fi throughput.

C . Transmit power: Adjusting transmit power affects signal range and coverage but does not significantly increase throughput; it may improve connectivity but not data rates.

References:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives -- Networking: ''Given a scenario, troubleshoot and configure wireless settings including channel selection, transmit power, and frequency bands.''

Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Wireless Networking.


Question 11

Which of the following is an isolated virtual machine?

Correct Answer: A. Sandbox
Explanation:

A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment, often used for testing code or software safely without affecting the host system.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 -- Virtualization:

''A sandbox provides an isolated environment, often implemented as a virtual machine, to safely test applications or code.''

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7


Question 12

Which of the following statements best summarize managed vs unmanaged switches? (Select two).

Correct Answer: C. Unmanaged switches start working as soon as they are plugged in to the network; D. Managed switches have more features
Explanation:

Unmanaged switches require no configuration they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.

Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 -- Compare and contrast common networking hardware:

''Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network traffic and security.''

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2


Question 13

Which of the following display technologies is known for offering the highest contrast ratios?

Correct Answer: C. OLED
Explanation:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) display technology objectives emphasize that contrast ratio is strongly influenced by how well a screen can produce true black. OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) panels are known for the highest contrast ratios because each pixel is self-emissive---meaning it generates its own light. When an image requires black, OLED can turn individual pixels completely off, producing near-perfect black levels and extremely high (often ''infinite'') contrast in practical terms.

By comparison, LCD panels require a backlight, so black areas still allow some light leakage through the liquid crystal layer, reducing contrast. LED in this context is typically an LED-backlit LCD, not a fundamentally different pixel technology; it improves brightness and efficiency but still relies on backlighting, so contrast is limited by backlight bleed and panel design. QLED is also a type of LCD technology that uses a quantum dot layer to enhance color and brightness, but it still uses a backlight, so it cannot match OLED's per-pixel shutoff for black levels. Therefore, OLED is the best choice for the highest contrast ratios.


Question 14

A technician receives complaints that a network fileshare is slow and now unavailable. The server is powered on and accessible via RDP. What should the technician check next?

Correct Answer: A. RAID array status
Explanation:

A fileshare becoming slow over time and then failing completely strongly suggests storage subsystem degradation, often due to a failing RAID array. CompTIA A+ explains that slow file access is an early sign of a degraded array, and eventual unavailability indicates the array may have failed or entered a critical state.

Since the technician can still RDP into the server, the OS is functioning, meaning memory is likely not the issue. Network connectivity is sufficient for remote login. Backup integrity does not affect real-time file availability.

Thus, the next step is to check the RAID array status, which directly controls the server's storage performance and availability precisely what CompTIA identifies as the primary point of failure in such scenarios.


Question 15

Users are complaining that the audio from a presenter is choppy and unintelligible Which of the following is causing the issue?

Correct Answer: D. Microphone
Explanation:

Choppy or unintelligible audio is typically caused by issues with the microphone, such as poor quality, hardware defects, or misconfiguration.

Why Not A (Webcam): The webcam handles video, not audio.

Why Not B (Digitizer): A digitizer relates to touchscreens, not audio.

Why Not C (Inverter): Inverters manage power for displays, not audio.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.6, audio troubleshooting.