Limited-Time Offer: Enjoy 50% Savings! Ends in 00h 00m 00s Coupon code: 50OFF
Skip to content

Free EXIN EPI Certified Information Technology Manager CITM Exam Questions

Page: 1 / 9 Total 50 questions

Want more questions? Get Premium Access.

Question 1

As part of the business continuity plan preparations, management wants a site arrangement to facilitate a desk for the workers. Which site do you recommend?

Correct Answer: A. Hot site
Explanation:

For a business continuity plan requiring a site to facilitate desks for workers, a hot site (A) is recommended. A hot site is a fully equipped, operational facility with real-time data replication, allowing immediate resumption of operations with minimal downtime. According to ISO 22301, hot sites are ideal for critical operations requiring desks, IT infrastructure, and immediate availability for workers to continue business processes post-disaster.

Cold site (B): A basic facility with minimal equipment, requiring significant setup time, unsuitable for immediate worker use.

Warm site (C): Partially equipped with some infrastructure but not fully operational, requiring setup time.

Mobile site (D): A temporary, portable solution, less suitable for sustained operations compared to a hot site.


Question 2

The team responsible for network security has proposed a firewall as the preferred control for the network perimeter. How is this type of control categorized?

Correct Answer: A. Technical preventive control
Explanation:

A firewall is categorized as a technical preventive control (A) in information security management. According to ISO/IEC 27001, preventive controls aim to stop security incidents before they occur, and technical controls involve technology-based solutions. A firewall prevents unauthorized access to the network perimeter by filtering traffic, making it a technical preventive control.

Physical detective control (B): Involves physical measures (e.g., cameras) to detect incidents, not applicable to firewalls.

Administrative deterrent control (C): Involves policies or procedures to discourage violations, not technology-based.

Physical corrective control (D): Addresses physical issues post-incident, not relevant to firewalls.


Question 3

During the system (application) development project, the customer wants to know how software will be maintained to assure that future functional requirements are incorporated. What type of system maintenance is the customer looking for?

Correct Answer: B. Perfective maintenance
Explanation:

The customer's focus on incorporating future functional requirements indicates a need for perfective maintenance (B). In application management, perfective maintenance involves enhancing software to add new features or improve functionality to meet evolving business needs, such as adding new modules or capabilities.

Preventive maintenance (A): Focuses on preventing issues by optimizing performance or addressing potential problems, not adding new features.

Corrective maintenance (C): Involves fixing bugs or errors, not incorporating new functionality.

Adaptive maintenance (D): Adapts software to environmental changes (e.g., new operating systems), not specifically for new functional requirements.

Perfective maintenance aligns with the SDLC's maintenance phase, ensuring the software evolves to support future business requirements.


Question 4

What is the Critical Success Factor (CSF) in IT services review?

Correct Answer: A. Evaluate deliverables before meeting the customer for an IT service review
Explanation:

A Critical Success Factor (CSF) in IT services review, as per ITIL's service management framework, is to evaluate deliverables before meeting the customer for an IT service review (A). This ensures that the IT service provider has thoroughly assessed service performance, identified issues, and prepared actionable insights or recommendations to discuss with the customer. Pre-evaluating deliverables enables a productive review meeting, ensuring alignment with customer expectations and service level agreements (SLAs).

Suitable location (B): Logistical factors like location are not critical to the success of the review process.

Explain shortcomings and bottlenecks (C): While transparency is important, focusing only on issues without prior evaluation may undermine the review's effectiveness.

Inform customers on improvements (D): Informing about improvements is part of the review but not the CSF; evaluation of deliverables is the foundation for meaningful discussions.


Question 5

In business continuity planning, the maximum age of the data to restore in the event of a disaster is considered which of the following?

Correct Answer: D. Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Explanation:

The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) (D) in business continuity planning defines the maximum age of data (i.e., the amount of data loss acceptable) that can be tolerated in a disaster before recovery. It represents the time between the last backup and the point of failure, indicating potential data loss. For example, an RPO of 4 hours means up to 4 hours of data could be lost. According to ISO 22301, RPO is critical for determining backup and replication strategies.

Maximum Time Allowed (MTA) (A): Not a standard term in business continuity.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) (B): Defines the maximum downtime before recovery, not data loss.

Maximum Allowable Outage (MAO) (C): Refers to the maximum time a system can be unavailable, similar to RTO, not data loss.


Question 6

Activities in a project are discussed in a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) session during the planning phase. Team members inform the project manager that whilst estimating the duration for activities, a lot of data exist about the effort required for each of them. Which estimation technique is best considered?

Correct Answer: D. Bottom-up
Explanation:

When a lot of data exist about the effort required for project activities, the bottom-up estimation technique (D) is most appropriate. This method involves estimating the effort for each task in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) individually, then aggregating them to derive the total project duration or cost. It leverages detailed data for accuracy, as per PMBOK's estimation techniques.

Top-down (A): Uses high-level estimates based on historical data or expert judgment, less accurate with detailed task data available.

Three-point (B): Uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates for uncertainty, but is less focused on leveraging detailed effort data.

Comparative (C): Likely refers to analogous estimation, which relies on comparisons to past projects, not detailed task data.

Bottom-up estimation is ideal when detailed effort data is available, ensuring precision in project planning.