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Free Isaca Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA Exam Questions

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Question 1

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tools provide the MOST protection against:

Correct Answer: C. The downloading of sensitive information to devices by employees.
Explanation:

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) toolsare designed toprevent unauthorized access, transfer, or leakage of sensitive data, especially byinsider threatsorunauthorized downloads.

Preventing Unauthorized Downloads (Correct Answer -- C)

DLP solutionsblock or log attemptsto transfer sensitive files.

Example:A DLP tool detects andblocks an employee from copying confidential data to a USB drive.

Preventing Malware Installation (Incorrect -- A, B)

Antivirus and endpoint protection tools, not DLP, handle malware threats.

Preventing Corrupt Data Transmission (Incorrect -- D)

DLP focuses ondata protection, not detecting corrupt files.


ISACA CISA Review Manual

NIST 800-53 (Data Protection Controls)

CIS (Center for Internet Security) DLP Best Practices

Question 2

An organization has assigned two now IS auditors to audit a now system implementation. One of the auditors has an IT-related degree, and one has a business degree. Which ol the following is MOST important to meet the IS audit standard for proficiency?

Correct Answer: C. Team member assignments must be based on individual competencies.
Explanation:

Team member assignments based on individual competencies is the most important factor to meet the IS audit standard for proficiency. Proficiency is the ability to apply knowledge, skills and experience to perform audit tasks effectively and efficiently. The IS audit standard for proficiency requires that IS auditors must possess the knowledge, skills and discipline to perform audit tasks in accordance with applicable standards, guidelines and procedures. Team member assignments based on individual competencies is a way to ensure that each IS auditor is assigned to audit tasks that match their level of proficiency, and that the audit team as a whole has sufficient and appropriate proficiency to conduct the audit. The other options are not as important as option C, as they do not ensure that the IS auditors have the required proficiency to perform audit tasks. Having a globally recognized audit certification is a way to demonstrate proficiency in IS auditing, but it does not guarantee that the IS auditor has the specific knowledge, skills and experience needed for a particular audit task or system. Technical co-sourcing is a way to supplement the proficiency of the IS audit team by hiring external experts or consultants to perform certain audit tasks or functions, but it does not replace the need for internal IS auditors to have adequate proficiency. Having a supervisor review the new auditors' work is a way to ensure quality and accuracy of the audit work, but it does not ensure that the new auditors have the necessary proficiency to perform audit tasks independently or competently.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.4: Audit Skills and Competencies.


Question 3

An organization using a cloud provider for its online billing system requires the website to be accessible to customers at all times. What is the BEST way to verify the organization's business requirements are met?

Correct Answer: C. Monitor the service level agreement (SLA) with the vendor.

Question 4

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the IS auditor m an organization's information classification process?

Correct Answer: B. Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification
Explanation:

Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification is the primary role of the IS auditor in an organization's information classification process. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the information security controls are adequate and effective in safeguarding the information assets based on their classification levels. The other options are not the primary role of the IS auditor, but rather the responsibilities of the information owners, custodians, or security managers.Reference:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 206


Question 5

An IS auditor is reviewing the service agreement with a technology company that provides IT help desk services to the organization. Which of the following monthly performance

metrics is the BEST indicator of service quality?

Correct Answer: C. The percent of issues resolved by the first contact
Explanation:

The percent of issues resolved by the first contact, also known as the first contact resolution (FCR) rate, is a metric that measures the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT help desk services. It indicates how many customer support issues are resolved on the first interaction with the IT help desk, without requiring any follow-up calls, emails, chats, or escalations.The FCR rate is calculated by dividing the number of issues resolved on the first contact by the total number of customer support issues, and multiplying by 100%1.

The FCR rate is the best indicator of service quality among the four monthly performance metrics, because it reflects the following aspects of the IT help desk services:

Customer satisfaction: Customers are more likely to be satisfied with the IT help desk services if their issues are resolved quickly and effectively on the first contact, without having to wait for a response or repeat their problem to multiple agents.A high FCR rate can improve customer loyalty, retention, and advocacy2.

Cost efficiency: Resolving issues on the first contact can reduce the operational costs of the IT help desk services, such as labor costs, phone costs, or overhead costs.A high FCR rate can also increase the productivity and utilization of the IT help desk agents, as they can handle more issues in less time3.

Service level: Resolving issues on the first contact can improve the service level of the IT help desk services, such as reducing the average handle time (AHT), increasing the service level agreement (SLA) compliance, or decreasing the backlog of unresolved issues.A high FCR rate can also enhance the reputation and credibility of the IT help desk services4.

Therefore, an IS auditor should review the FCR rate as a key performance indicator (KPI) of the IT help desk services, and compare it with the industry standards and benchmarks. According to MetricNet's benchmarking database, the FCR industry standard is 74 percent.This number varies widely, however, froma low of about 41 percent to a high of 94 percent5. An IS auditor should also recommend ways to improve the FCR rate, such as:

Training and empowering the IT help desk agents to handle a wide range of issues and provide accurate and consistent solutions

Implementing a knowledge base or a self-service portal that provides relevant and updated information and guidance for common or simple issues

Improving communication and collaboration between different departments or teams that may be involved in resolving complex or escalated issues

Using feedback and analytics tools to monitor and measure customer satisfaction and identify areas for improvement


Question 6

An organization has replaced all of the storage devices at its primary data center with new higher-capacity units The replaced devices have been installed at the disaster recovery site to replace older units An IS auditor s PRIMARY concern would be whether

Correct Answer: A. the recovery site devices can handle the storage requirements
Explanation:

An IS auditor's primary concern would be whether the recovery site devices can handle the storage requirements. The storage requirements are determined by the amount and type of data that needs to be backed up and restored in case of a disaster at the primary data center. The recovery site devices should have enough capacity, performance, reliability, and compatibility to meet these requirements.

If the recovery site devices cannot handle the storage requirements, then there is a risk that some data may not be backed up properly or may not be available for recovery when needed. This couldresult in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency, which could affect the business continuity and integrity of the organization.

Therefore, an IS auditor should verify that:

The recovery site devices have sufficient storage space to accommodate all the data that needs to be backed up from the primary data center.

The recovery site devices have adequate bandwidth and speed to transfer and access data efficiently and effectively.

The recovery site devices have appropriate security features and controls to protect data from unauthorized access or modification.

The recovery site devices are compatible with the primary data center devices in terms of hardware, software, format, and protocol.


10: What Is a Disaster Recovery Site? Hot, Cold and Warm Site

11: Disaster recovery site - What is the ideal distance to mitigate risks? - Advisera

12: Offsite Data Backup Storage vs Disaster Recovery (DR) - LINBIT

Question 7

An organization's payroll department recently implemented a new Software as a Service (SaaS) tool for payment processing. Which of the following audits is MOST appropriate for an IS auditor to validate that the new tool is configured as expected to meet performance requirements?

Correct Answer: C. Functional audit

Question 8

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining how frequently to review a data protection policy?

Correct Answer: C. Local laws and regulations
Explanation:

The best answer is C. Local laws and regulations.

ISACA privacy guidance consistently frames data protection policy around compliance with privacy laws, rules, and regulations. ISACA specifically notes that privacy strategies and policies should be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect regulatory changes and ensure compliance. Since data protection obligations are often legally mandated and penalties can be significant, legal and regulatory requirements are the most important consideration when determining review frequency.

Option A. Industry best practices can inform good policy design, but they do not override legal requirements.

Option B. Business objectives matter for alignment, but they are not the strongest driver of review frequency in a privacy context.

Option D. Known international standards can be useful references, but local legal obligations are more binding and more important for determining how often the policy must be revisited.

Therefore, C is the correct answer because compliance with local laws and regulations is the most important driver of how frequently a data protection policy should be reviewed.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA Journal, What Is Your Privacy and Data Protection Strategy?.

ISACA, The Evolving World of Data Privacy: Trends and Strategies.

ISACA Journal, Privacy Risk Management.

ISACA Journal, Analyzing Privacy Policies as Data.


Question 9

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor who is assessing an organization's configuration and release management process?

Correct Answer: B. Changes and change approvals are not documented
Explanation:

The greatest concern to an IS auditor who is assessing an organization's configuration and release management process is that changes and change approvals are not documented. This is because documentation is essential for ensuring the traceability, accountability, and quality of the changes made to the configuration items (CIs) and the releases deployed to the production environment. Without documentation, it would be difficult to verify the authenticity, validity, and authorization of the changes, as well as to identify and resolve any issues or incidents that may arise from the changes. Documentation also helps to maintain compliance with internal and external standards and regulations, as well as to facilitate audits and reviews.

The other options are not as concerning as option B, although they may also indicate some weaknesses in the configuration and release management process. The organization does not use an industry-recognized methodology, but this does not necessarily mean that their process is ineffective or inefficient. The organization may have developed their own methodology that suits their specific needs and context. However, using an industry-recognized methodology could help them adopt best practices and improve their process maturity. All changes require middle and senior management approval, but this may not be a problem if the organization has a clear and streamlined approval process that does not cause delays or bottlenecks in the change implementation. However, requiring too many approvals could also introduce unnecessary complexity and bureaucracy in the process. There is no centralized configuration management database (CMDB), but this does not mean that the organization does not have a way of managing their CIs and their relationships. The organization may use other tools or methods to store and access their configuration data, such as spreadsheets, documents, or repositories. However, having a centralized CMDB could help them improve their visibility, accuracy, and consistency of their configuration data.


1: The Essential Guide to Release Management | Smartsheet

2: 5 steps to a successful release management process - Lucidchart

3: Configuration Management process overview - Micro Focus

4: Release and Deployment Management process overview - Micro Focus

Question 10

A hearth care organization utilizes Internet of Things (loT) devices to improve patient outcomes through real-time patient monitoring and advanced diagnostics. Which of the following would BEST assist in isolating these devices from corporate network traffic?

Correct Answer: A. Internal firewalls
Explanation:

Internal firewalls are highly effective for isolating Internet of Things (IoT) devices from corporate network traffic. By segmenting the network and restricting communication between devices and the main corporate infrastructure, internal firewalls help mitigate the risk of lateral movement and data breaches caused by compromised IoT devices.

Blockchain Technology (Option B):This is useful for ensuring data integrity but not for network isolation.

Content Filtering Proxy (Option C):This is designed to manage web traffic and does not provide network segmentation.

Zero Trust Architecture (Option D):While Zero Trust provides robust access controls, internal firewalls are more directly suited for traffic isolation.


Question 11

An IS auditor is reviewing the perimeter security design of a network. Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance outgoing Internet traffic is controlled?

Correct Answer: C. Stateful firewall
Explanation:

A stateful firewall provides the greatest assurance that outgoing Internet traffic is controlled, as it monitors and filters packets based on their source, destination and connection state. A stateful firewall can prevent unauthorized or malicious traffic from leaving the network, as well as block incoming traffic that does not match an established connection. An intrusion detection system (IDS) can detect and alert on suspicious or anomalous traffic, but it does not block or control it. A security information and event management (SIEM) system can collect and analyze logs and events from various sources, but it does not directly control traffic.A load balancer can distribute traffic among multiple servers, but it does not filter or monitor it.Reference:CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2


Question 12

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that an organization's IT strategy is aligned lo its business objectives?

Correct Answer: B. The IT strategy is approved by executive management.
Explanation:

The best evidence that an organization's IT strategy is aligned to its business objectives is that the IT strategy is approved by executive management. This implies that the IT strategy has been reviewed and validated by the senior leaders of the organization, who are responsible for setting and overseeing the business objectives.The IT strategy may be modified inresponse to organizational change, based on IT operational best practices, or have significant impact on the business strategy, but these are not sufficient indicators of alignment without executive approval.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1


Question 13

In the case of a disaster where the data center is no longer available, which of the following tasks should be done FIRST?

Correct Answer: D. Activate the call tree.
Explanation:

In the event of a disaster where the data center is no longer available, the first step should be to activate the call tree1.A call tree is a layered hierarchical communication model used to notify specific individuals of an event and coordinate recovery efforts1.This ensures that all relevant parties are informed about the situation and can begin executing their parts of the disaster recovery plan1.


IT Disaster Recovery Plan | Ready.gov

Question 14

Which of the following should an IS auditor be MOST concerned with when a system uses RFID?

Correct Answer: A. privacy
Explanation:

RFID stands for Radio Frequency Identification, and it is a technology that uses radio waves to identify or track objects that have a small chip (RFID tag) attached to them. RFID tags can store various types of information, such as serial numbers, product codes, or personal data.RFID readers can scan the tags from a distance and access the information without physical contact1.

RFID has many benefits for different applications, such as inventory management, supply chain optimization, asset tracking, and access control. However, RFID also poses some challenges and risks for information security and privacy. Some of these risks are:

Privacy: RFID tags can be read by unauthorized or malicious parties, who can collect personal or sensitive data without the knowledge or consent of the tag owners.This can lead to identity theft, profiling, tracking, or surveillance2.For example, a hacker could scan an RFID-tagged passport or credit card and steal the personal information or financial details of the owner3.

Communication attacks: RFID systems are vulnerable to various types of attacks that target the wireless communication between the tags and the readers.These include eavesdropping, jamming, spoofing, replaying, cloning, or modifying the data transmitted by the tags or the readers4. For example, an attacker could intercept the data from an RFID tag and alter it before sending it to the reader, causing false or misleading information to be recorded.

Mafia fraud: This is a type of attack where an adversary acts as a man-in-the-middle and relays the information between two legitimate parties. This can allow the adversary to bypass authentication or authorization mechanisms and gain access to restricted areas or resources. For example, an attacker could use a device to relay the signal from an RFID-tagged car key to the car's ignition system and start the car without having the physical key.


Question 15

During an incident management audit, an IS auditor finds that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period. Which of the following is the auditor's MOST important course of action?

Correct Answer: B. Determine if a root cause analysis was conducted.
Explanation:

The IS auditor's most important course of action after finding that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period is to determine if a root cause analysis was conducted. A root cause analysis is a systematic process that identifies the underlying causes of system failures or incidents. A root cause analysis can help to prevent recurrence of similar incidents, improve system performance and reliability, and enhance incident management processes. The IS auditor should evaluate whether a root cause analysis was performed for each incident, whether it was timely and thorough, and whether it resulted in effective corrective actions.