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Free Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam Questions

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Question 1

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

Correct Answer: B. Code security
Explanation:

Code security in cloud environments involves using tools like Static Application Security Testing (SAST) to automatically analyze source code for vulnerabilities before deployment. This helps identify and remediate potential threats early in the software development lifecycle.


Question 2

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Correct Answer: C. Acceptable use of the SaaS application
Explanation:

SaaS applications are cloud-based software that users can access from anywhere and any device. This poses a challenge for organizations to ensure that their employees are using the SaaS applications in a secure and compliant manner.Therefore, organizations need to establish and enforce acceptable use policies (AUPs) for SaaS applications that define the rules and guidelines for accessing and using the applications, such as who can use them, what data can be stored or shared, and what actions are prohibited12.AUPs help organizations to protect their data, prevent unauthorized access, and comply with local regulations and standards3.Reference:Using Software as a Service (SaaS) securely - NCSC,Minimum Security Standards for Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) and Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) | University IT,How to Secure Your SaaS Applications - CyberArk


Question 3

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Correct Answer: D. Identity and Access Management (IAM)
Explanation:

Identity and access management (IAM) is a software service or framework that allows organizations to define user or group identities within software environments, then associate permissions with them. The identities and permissions are usually spelled out in a text file, which is referred to as an IAM policy.


Question 4

Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.

Correct Answer: C. It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted
Explanation:

A perimeter-based network security strategy relies on firewalls, routers, and other devices to create a boundary between the internal network and the external network. This strategy assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted, and that any threat comes from outside the network. However, this assumption is flawed, as internal endpoints can also be compromised by malware, phishing, insider attacks, or other methods. Once an attacker gains access to an internal endpoint, they can use it to move laterally within the network, bypassing the perimeter defenses. Therefore, a perimeter-based network security strategy is not sufficient to protect an organization's endpoint systems, and a more comprehensive approach, such as Zero Trust, is needed.Reference:

Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET)

Traditional perimeter-based network defense is obsolete---transform to a Zero Trust model

What is Network Perimeter Security? Definition and Components | Acalvio


Question 5

Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: B. Log normalization; D. Incident response
Explanation:

Log normalization -- SIEMs standardize log formats from various sources, making it easier to analyze and correlate security events.

Incident response -- Integration enables faster detection, investigation, and automated or guided response to security incidents by using correlated data from multiple tools.

Hardware procurement and security team training are not directly influenced by SIEM integration.


Question 6

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

Correct Answer: A. To provide consistency in response to security issues
Explanation:

Automation in SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the process of programming tasks, alerts, and responses to security incidents so that they can be executed without human intervention. Automation in SOAR helps security teams to handle the huge amount of information generated by various security tools, analyze it through machine learning processes, and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules and workflows. Automation in SOAR also reduces the manual effort and time required for security operations, improves the accuracy and efficiency of threat detection and response, and provides consistency in handling security issues across different environments and scenarios. Reference: What is SOAR (security orchestration, automation and response)? | IBM, What Is SOAR? Technology and Solutions | Microsoft Security, Security orchestration - Wikipedia.


Question 7

What does ''forensics'' refer to in a Security Operations process?

Correct Answer: A. Collecting raw data needed to complete the detailed analysis of an investigation
Explanation:

Forensics in a Security Operations process refers to collecting raw data needed to complete the detailed analysis of an investigation. Forensic analysis is a crucial step in identifying, investigating, and documenting the cause, course, and consequences of a security incident or violation. Forensic analysis involves various techniques and tools to extract, preserve, analyze, and present evidence in a structured and acceptable format. Forensic analysis can be used for legal compliance, auditing, incident response, and threat intelligence purposes.Reference:

Cyber Forensics Explained: Reasons, Phases & Challenges of Cyber Forensics

SOC Processes, Operations, Challenges, and Best Practices

What is Digital Forensics | Phases of Digital Forensics | EC-Council


Question 8

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

Correct Answer: B. alert system administrators; C. quarantine the infected file; D. delete the infected file
Explanation:

Signature-based antivirus software is a type of security software that uses signatures to identify malware. Signatures are bits of code that are unique to a specific piece of malware.When signature-based antivirus software detects a piece of malware, it compares the signature to its database of known signatures12. If a match is found, the software can do three things to provide protection:

Alert system administrators: The software can notify the system administrators or the users about the malware detection, and provide information such as the name, type, location, and severity of the malware.This can help the administrators or the users to take appropriate actions to prevent further damage or infection3.

Quarantine the infected file: The software can isolate the infected file from the rest of the system, and prevent it from accessing or modifying any other files or processes.This can help to contain the malware and limit its impact on the system4.

Delete the infected file: The software can remove the infected file from the system, and prevent it from running or spreading.This can help to eliminate the malware and restore the system to a clean state4.

:

What is a signature-based antivirus? - Info Exchange

What is a Signature and How Can I detect it? - Sophos

How Does Heuristic Analysis Antivirus Software Work?

What Is Signature-based Malware Detection? | RiskXchange


Question 9

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Correct Answer: B. Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components
Explanation:

'In serverless apps, the developer uploads only the app package itself, without a full container image or any OS components. The platform dynamically packages it into an image, runs the image in a container, and (if needed) instantiates the underlying host OS and VM and the hardware required to run them.'


Question 10

Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: A. They can be accessed by traffic from the internet.; D. They are isolated from the internal network.
Explanation:

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a portion of an enterprise network that sits behind a firewall but outside of or segmented from the internal network1.The DMZ typically hosts public services, such as web, mail, and domain servers, that can be accessed by traffic from the internet1.However, the DMZ is isolated from the internal network by another firewall or security gateway, which prevents unauthorized access to the private network2. Therefore, statements A and D are true about servers in a DMZ, while statements B and C are false.Reference:

What is a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)? | F5

Demilitarized Zones (DMZs) - Secure Network Architecture - CompTIA ...


Question 11

How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?

Correct Answer: D. II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.
Explanation:

Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) is a platform that enables security teams to manage the lifecycle of threat intelligence, from aggregation to action. One of the key features of Cortex XSOAR TIM is that it automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators from various sources, such as threat feeds, open-source intelligence, internal data, and third-party integrations 1. Indicators are pieces of information that can be used to identify malicious activity, such as IP addresses, domains, URLs, hashes, etc. By automating the ingestion and aggregation of indicators, Cortex XSOAR TIM reduces the manual effort and time required to collect, validate, and prioritize threat data. It also enables analysts to have a unified view of the global threat landscape and the impact of threats on their network 1. Reference: 1: Threat Intelligence Management - Palo Alto Networks 2


Question 12

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

Correct Answer: C. causes security policies to be complex
Explanation:

Multiple policies, no policy reconciliation tools: Sequential traffic analysis (stateful inspection, application control, intrusion prevention system (IPS), anti-malware, etc.) in traditional data center security solutions requires a corresponding security policy or profile, often using multiple management tools. The result is that your security policies become convoluted as you build and manage a firewall policy with source, destination, user, port, and action; an application control policy with similar rules; and any other threat prevention rules required. Multiple security policies that mix positive (firewall) and negative (application control, IPS, and anti-malware) control models can cause security holes by missing traffic and/or not identifying


Question 13

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

Correct Answer: D. cyberterrorists
Explanation:

Cyberterrorists are attackers who use the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and induce panic. Cyberterrorists may target critical infrastructure, government systems, or public services to cause disruption, damage, or harm. Cyberterrorists may also use the internet to disseminate propaganda, incite violence, or coordinate attacks. Cyberterrorists differ from other attacker profiles in their motivation, which is usually political, religious, or ideological, rather than financial or personal.Reference:Cyberterrorism,Cyber Threats,Cybersecurity Threat Landscape


Question 14

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Correct Answer: A. the network is large
Explanation:

A static routing protocol requires that routes be created and updated manually on a router or other network device. If a static route is down, traffic can't be automatically rerouted unless an alternate route has been configured. Also, if the route is congested, traffic can't be automatically rerouted over the less congested alternate route. Static routing is practical only in very small networks or for very limited, special-case routing scenarios (for example, a destination that's used as a backup route or is reachable only via a single router). However, static routing has low bandwidth requirements (routing information isn't broadcast across the network) and some built-in security (users can route only to destinations that are specified in statically defined routes).


Question 15

What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: A. Convincing an employee that they are also an employee; C. Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call
Explanation:

Social engineering attacks manipulate human trust to gain unauthorized access or information. Convincing an employee that an attacker is also an employee builds rapport, lowering defenses for information disclosure or credential sharing. Similarly, impersonating a company representative and requesting unrelated personal data exploits authority bias to deceive victims. These tactics exploit psychological vulnerabilities rather than technical flaws and are prevalent initial steps in multi-stage attacks. Palo Alto Networks highlights the importance of training, multi-factor authentication, and behavior-based threat detection to mitigate social engineering risks effectively.