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Free Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional CTPRP Exam Questions

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Question 1

Which statement is FALSE regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification?

Correct Answer: D. Network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification only for third parties that process personal information
Explanation:

This statement is false because network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification for any third party that has access to the organization's network, systems, or data, regardless of whether they process personal information or not. Network connectivity or remote access increases the exposure of the organization to cyberattacks, data breaches, or unauthorized access by malicious actors. Therefore, the organization should assess the security controls and practices of the third party, such as encryption, authentication, firewall, antivirus, and patch management, to ensure that they meet the organization's standards and expectations. The organization should also monitor the network activity and performance of the third party, and establish clear policies and procedures for granting, revoking, or modifying access rights. The other statements (A, B, and C) are true regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification, as they reflect the potential impact, likelihood, and severity of the risks associated with the vendor's location, importance, and data processing.Reference:

Impact of Risk Attributes on Vendor Risk Assessment and Classification, SSRN

Guide to Vendor Risk Assessment, Smartsheet

How Do You Determine Vendor Criticality?, UpGuard


Question 2

Which statement is TRUE regarding defining vendor classification or risk tiering in a TPRM program?

Correct Answer: D. Vendor classification and risk tier is determined by calculating the inherent risk associated with outsourcing a specific product or service
Explanation:

The other statements are false, as they do not accurately describe the vendor classification or risk tiering process. The statement A is false, as vendor classification and risk tiers are not based on residual risk calculations, but on inherent risk calculations.Residual risk is the risk that remains after controls or mitigating factors are applied3.Residual risk is used to evaluate the effectiveness of the controls and the need for further action, but not to classify or tier vendors3. The statement B is false, as vendor classification and risk tiering should be used for all third party relationships, not only for critical ones.Vendor classification and risk tiering helps to identify and prioritize the critical vendors, but also to manage the low and medium risk vendors according to their respective risk profiles12. The statement C is false, as vendor classification and corresponding risk tiers do not utilize the same due diligence standards for controls evaluation based upon policy, but different ones. Due diligence standards are the criteria and methods used to assess the security posture and performance of vendors. Due diligence standards should vary according to the risk tier of the vendor, as higher risk vendors require more rigorous and frequent evaluation than lower risk vendors.


1: What is Vendor Tiering? Optimize Your Vendor Risk Management | UpGuard Blog

2: Vendor Tiering Best Practices: Categorizing Vendor Risks | UpGuard Blog

3: Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM): A Complete Guide - BlueVoyant

[4]: Supplemental Examination Procedures for Risk Management of Third-Party Relationships

[5]: Third Party Risk Management: Why It's Important And What Features To Look For - Expert Insights

Question 3

At which level of reporting are changes in TPRM program metrics rare and exceptional?

Correct Answer: D. Board of Directors
Explanation:

TPRM program metrics are the indicators that measure the performance, effectiveness, and maturity of the TPRM program. They help to monitor and communicate the progress, achievements, and challenges of the TPRM program to various stakeholders, such as business units, executive management, risk committees, and board of directors.However, the level of reporting and the frequency of changes in TPRM program metrics vary depending on the stakeholder's role, responsibility, and interest123:

Business unit: This level of reporting is focused on the operational aspects of the TPRM program, such as the status of vendor assessments, remediation actions, issues, and incidents. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are frequent and granular, as they reflect the day-to-day activities and outcomes of the TPRM program.

Executive management: This level of reporting is focused on the strategic aspects of the TPRM program, such as the alignment with the business objectives, the compliance with the regulatory requirements, the management of the key risks, and the optimization of the resources and costs. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are less frequent and more aggregated, as they reflect the overall direction and performance of the TPRM program.

Risk committee: This level of reporting is focused on the oversight aspects of the TPRM program, such as the evaluation of the risk appetite, the review of the risk profile, the approval of the risk policies, and the escalation of the risk issues. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are occasional and more analytical, as they reflect the governance and assurance of the TPRM program.

Board of Directors: This level of reporting is focused on the advisory aspects of the TPRM program, such as the endorsement of the risk strategy, the awareness of the risk trends, the guidance of the risk culture, and the support of the risk initiatives. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are rare and exceptional, as they reflect the high-level and long-term vision and value of the TPRM program.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. Board of Directors, as this is the level of reporting where changes in TPRM program metrics are rare and exceptional.Reference:

1: 15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program | UpGuard

2: Third-party risk management metrics: Best practices to enhance your ... | Diligent

3: TPRM Metrics - Telling Your Risk Story - Shared Assessments | Shared Assessments


Question 4

Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?

Correct Answer: C. Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards
Explanation:

According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, physical security compliance is the process of ensuring that the physical assets and personnel of an organization are protected from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or harm1. Physical security compliance can be achieved by implementing various measures, such as locks, alarms, cameras, guards, fences, badges, etc.However, these measures need to be regularly monitored, tested, and verified to ensure their effectiveness and alignment with the defined standards and policies2.Therefore, maintaining a standardized schedule for confirming controls to defined standards demonstrates a greater maturity of physical security compliance, as it indicates a proactive and consistent approach to assessing and improving the physical security posture of an organization3.

The other options do not reflect a high level of physical security compliance maturity, as they either rely on reactive or ad hoc methods, or lack sufficient verification and validation mechanisms. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events may indicate a lack of preventive and predictive measures, as well as a dependency on external or internal incidents to trigger the inspections. Providing a checklist for self-assessment may indicate a lack of independent and objective evaluation, as well as a potential for bias or error in the self-assessment process. Conducting unannounced checks on an ad hoc basis may indicate a lack of planning and coordination, as well as a potential for disruption or inconsistency in the checks.


1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 24

2: Physical Security: Planning, Measures & Examples + PDF - Avigilon

3: Security Maturity Models: Levels, Assessment, and Benefits

[4]: Best Practices for Planning and Managing Physical Security Resources - CISA, page 10

[5]: Self-Assessment vs. Independent Assessment: What's the Difference? | Linford & Company LLP

[6]: The Pros and Cons of Unannounced Audits | NQA

Question 5

Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?

Correct Answer: B. Software as a Service
Explanation:

Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to software applications over the internet, without requiring them to install, maintain, or update the software on their own devices. SaaS is primarily focused on the application layer, as it delivers the complete functionality of the software to the end users, while abstracting away the underlying infrastructure, platform, and middleware layers. SaaS providers are responsible for managing the servers, databases, networks, security, and scalability of the software, as well as ensuring its availability, performance, and compliance. SaaS users only pay for the software usage, usually on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, and can access the software from any device and location, as long as they have an internet connection. Some examples of SaaS applications are Gmail, Salesforce, Dropbox, and Netflix.Reference:

Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 15, section 2.2.2

Cloud Computing Deployment Models and Architectures, section on Cloud Computing Models

Layered Architecture of Cloud, section on Application Layer


Question 6

Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?

Correct Answer: C. To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings
Explanation:

The purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics is to inform and align the organization's stakeholders on the status, progress, and outcomes of the TPRM program. This includes communicating the results of vendor assessments, the compliance level of the organization's policies and procedures, and the periodic reporting to management and other relevant parties. However, documenting the corrective action plan between external parties is not an internal communication, but rather an external one. This is because the corrective action plan is a formal agreement between the organization and the vendor to address and resolve the issues identified in the assessment. Therefore, this statement is not an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics.Reference:

15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program

Third-party risk management metrics: Best practices to enhance your program

3 Best Third-Party Risk Management Software Solutions (2024)


Question 7

Which requirement is the MOST important for managing risk when the vendor contract terminates?

Correct Answer: C. The requirement to ensure secure data destruction and asset return
Explanation:

When a vendor contract terminates, one of the most important requirements for managing risk is to ensure that the vendor securely destroys or returns any data or assets that belong to the organization or its customers. This is to prevent any unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or loss of sensitive information or resources that could result in legal, regulatory, reputational, or financial consequences. The organization should also verify that the vendor complies with this requirement by requesting evidence or conducting audits.

The other options are also important, but not as critical as ensuring data and asset security. Performing a financial review of outstanding invoices is necessary to avoid overpaying or underpaying the vendor, and to resolve any disputes or claims. Performing a final assessment based on due diligence standards is useful to evaluate the vendor's performance, identify any issues or gaps, and document any lessons learned or best practices. Defining contract terms for transition services is helpful to facilitate a smooth and orderly handover of responsibilities, deliverables, or processes to another vendor or internal team.


1: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a comprehensive guide for Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) candidates, which covers the core concepts and best practices of third party risk management, including vendor offboarding and termination.

2: Prevalent, a platform for third party risk management, provides a blog post on vendor offboarding and termination risk management, which includes a checklist and a template for secure data and asset destruction or return.

3: Spendflo, a platform for vendor risk management, provides a guide on vendor risk management, which includes the importance of data and asset security when terminating vendor contracts.

Question 8

Which of the following components are typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program?

Correct Answer: D. Conducting customer performed penetration tests
Explanation:

A cloud hosting vendor assessment program is a process of evaluating the security, compliance, and performance of a cloud service provider (CSP) that hosts an organization's data or applications.A cloud hosting vendor assessment program typically includes the following components123:

Reviewing the entity's image snapshot approval and management process: This component involves verifying how the CSP creates, approves, stores, and deletes image snapshots of the virtual machines or containers that run the organization's workloads. Image snapshots can contain sensitive data or configuration settings that need to be protected from unauthorized access or modification.

Requiring security services documentation and audit attestation reports: This component involves requesting and reviewing the CSP's documentation and reports that demonstrate the security controls and practices that the CSP implements to protect the organization's data and applications. These may include service level agreements (SLAs), security policies and procedures, security certifications and standards, vulnerability scanning and patching reports, incident response and disaster recovery plans, and independent audit reports such as SOC 2 or ISO 27001.

Requiring compliance evidence that provides the definition of patching responsibilities: This component involves asking and verifying how the CSP handles the patching of the operating systems, applications, and libraries that run on the cloud infrastructure. Patching is a critical activity to prevent security breaches and ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. The organization needs to understand the roles and responsibilities of the CSP and the organization in patching the cloud environment, and the frequency and scope of patching activities.

The component that is typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program is conducting customer performed penetration tests. Penetration testing is a method of simulating a cyberattack on a system or network to identify and exploit vulnerabilities and weaknesses. While penetration testing can be a valuable tool to assess the security posture of a CSP, it is not usually included in a cloud hosting vendor assessment program for the following reasons :

Penetration testing may violate the CSP's terms of service or acceptable use policy, which may prohibit or restrict the customer from performing any unauthorized or disruptive activities on the cloud infrastructure. The customer may face legal or contractual consequences if they conduct penetration testing without the CSP's consent or knowledge.

Penetration testing may interfere with the CSP's normal operations or affect the availability and performance of the cloud services for other customers. The customer may cause unintended damage or disruption to the CSP's systems or networks, or trigger false alarms or alerts that may divert the CSP's resources or attention.

Penetration testing may not provide a comprehensive or accurate assessment of the CSP's security, as the customer may have limited visibility or access to the CSP's internal systems or networks, or may encounter security mechanisms or countermeasures that prevent or limit the penetration testing activities. The customer may also face ethical or legal issues if they access or compromise the data or systems of other customers or the CSP.

Therefore, the verified answer to the question is D. Conducting customer performed penetration tests.


Four Important Best Practices for Assessing Cloud Vendors

Top 11 Questionnaires for IT Vendor Assessment in 2024

Cloud Vendor Assessments | Done The Right Way

[Penetration Testing in the Cloud: What You Need to Know]

[Cloud Penetration Testing: Challenges and Best Practices]

Question 9

Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Correct Answer: D. Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in ''order to move the processing back to an approved country
Explanation:

This answer is the best approach because it aligns with the principles of third-party risk management, which include ensuring compliance with company policies, contractual obligations, and regulatory requirements. By asking the vendor to replace the subcontractor, the company is exercising its right to terminate or modify the relationship if the vendor fails to meet the agreed-upon standards or poses unacceptable risks. This also minimizes the potential impact of the vendor's non-compliance on the company's reputation, operations, and data security. The other options are less effective because they either ignore the issue, compromise the company's policy, or rely on the vendor's self-assessment without verification.Reference:

Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 3: Program Governance, Section 3.2: Policies and Procedures, p. 14

Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 4: Program Components, Section 4.3: Contracting, p. 24

Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 5: Program Implementation, Section 5.2: Ongoing Monitoring, p. 32

Best-Practices Guidance for Third-Party Risk, Section: Defend Against Privileged User Risks, p. 2

Five Best Practices to Manage and Control Third-Party Risk, Section: Best Practices for Controlling Third-Party Vendor Risks, p. 3


Question 10

Which factor is the LEAST important attribute when classifying personal data?

Correct Answer: A. The volume of data records processed or retained
Explanation:

According to the GDPR, personal data is any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (data subject). The GDPR does not consider the volume of data records as a relevant factor for classifying personal data, but rather the nature and context of the data. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to apply appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk of processing personal data, taking into account factors such as the state of the art, the costs of implementation, the nature, scope, context and purposes of processing, and the risks of varying likelihood and severity for the rights and freedoms of natural persons. Therefore, the volume of data records is not a decisive attribute for classifying personal data, but rather an indicator of the potential impact of a data breach or misuse.

The other factors listed in the question are more important attributes for classifying personal data, as they relate to the identification, protection, and rights of the data subjects. The data subject category that identifies the data owner refers to the type of natural person whose personal data is processed, such as customers, employees, patients, students, etc.This factor is important for determining the purpose and legal basis of processing, as well as the data subject's rights and expectations1.The sensitivity level of specific data elements that could identify an individual refers to the degree of harm or discrimination that could result from the disclosure or misuse of such data, such as racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, trade union membership, genetic or biometric data, health data, sex life or sexual orientation, or criminal convictions or offenses2. The GDPR imposes stricter rules and obligations for the processing of such special categories of personal data, as they pose a higher risk to the data subject's fundamental rights and freedoms.The assignment of a confidentiality level that differentiates public or non-public information refers to the degree of access and disclosure that is permitted or required for the personal data, depending on the data subject's consent, the legitimate interests of the data controller or processor, or the applicable laws and regulations1. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to implement data protection by design and by default, meaning that they should only process the personal data that is necessary for the specific purpose and limit the access to those who need to know.


4: 5 Types of Data Classification (With Examples) | Indeed.com

7: Special Categories of Personal Data - GDPR EU

[8]: Data Classification for GDPR Explained [Full Breakdown] - DataGrail