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Free WGU Global Economics for Managers Global-Economics-for-Managers Exam Questions

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Question 1

What is one of the four strategic goals of firms looking for potential locations?

Correct Answer: D. Market-seeking
Explanation:

Market-seeking is one of the major strategic goals firms pursue when choosing international locations. A market-seeking firm enters or invests in a foreign location to access customers, expand sales, serve local demand, or improve proximity to consumers. Option D is correct because it is a recognized foreign direct investment motive. Firms may also pursue resource-seeking, efficiency-seeking, or strategic asset-seeking goals. Scale-seeking, profit-seeking, and competition-seeking may sound plausible, but they are not the standard location motives used in this framework. Managers evaluate market-seeking opportunities by examining market size, income levels, consumer preferences, growth potential, distribution infrastructure, and competitive intensity. This matters because the reason for entering a location affects entry mode, pricing, staffing, and long-term investment decisions.


Question 2

Which statement describes one of the three views of globalization?

Correct Answer: B. Globalization is a new force sweeping through the world in recent times.
Explanation:

Globalization can be viewed from different perspectives. One view treats globalization as a relatively new force that has intensified in recent decades due to major advances in technology, transportation, communication, global finance, and international trade liberalization. This view emphasizes that modern globalization is different from earlier cross-border exchange because firms, consumers, capital markets, and supply chains are now connected at much greater speed and scale. Option B is correct because it captures the ''recent force'' view of globalization. Option A is too idealistic because globalization creates both benefits and costs. Option C is incorrect because globalization is not primarily an agreement to prevent wars. Option D is also incorrect because globalization often increases innovation through competition and knowledge transfer.


Question 3

In a monopoly, which statements are likely true? (Choose TWO.)

Correct Answer: A. One seller offers a unique good with no close substitutes; B. There are barriers to entry into the market
Explanation:

In Global Economics for Managers, monopolies are characterized by a single seller offering a unique product and strong barriers to entry, making options A and B correct.

Monopolists face no close substitutes and can influence market prices. Barriers to entry---such as legal protections, resource ownership, or economies of scale---prevent competitors from entering the market.

Options C and D apply to perfect competition. Option E contradicts the definition of monopoly.

Thus, options A and B correctly describe monopoly characteristics.


Question 4

Which statement about consumer surplus is true?

Correct Answer: B. It is a good measure of economic well-being if policymakers want to satisfy buyers' preferences
Explanation:

In Global Economics for Managers, consumer surplus is a key measure of buyer welfare, making option B correct.

Consumer surplus equals the difference between what consumers are willing to pay and what they actually pay. Policymakers often use it to assess how market outcomes or policies affect consumers.

Options A and C describe producer surplus and tax revenue. Option D refers to total surplus, not consumer surplus alone.

Thus, option B is correct.


Question 5

What is one of the two major exchange rate policies?

Correct Answer: B. Floating rate
Explanation:

In Global Economics for Managers, one of the two major exchange rate policies is the floating rate system, making option B the correct answer. Exchange rate policy determines how a country manages the value of its currency relative to others, which has significant implications for trade, investment, and macroeconomic stability.

Under a floating exchange rate system, currency values are determined by market forces of supply and demand in foreign exchange markets. Factors such as interest rates, inflation expectations, trade balances, and capital flows influence exchange rate movements. Governments and central banks do not commit to maintaining a specific exchange rate level, although they may occasionally intervene to reduce excessive volatility.

The alternative major policy is a fixed (or pegged) exchange rate system, where the government commits to maintaining the currency at a specific value relative to another currency or basket of currencies. Option A, fiscal rate, refers to government taxation and spending policy. Option C, matched rate, is not a recognized exchange rate regime. Option D, discount rate, is a monetary policy tool used by central banks, not an exchange rate policy.

Global Economics for Managers emphasizes that floating exchange rates provide greater monetary policy independence but introduce exchange rate uncertainty, which managers must manage through hedging and pricing strategies. Therefore, option B correctly identifies a major exchange rate policy.


Question 6

What is one characteristic of a market surplus?

Correct Answer: B. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded
Explanation:

In Global Economics for Managers, a market surplus occurs when quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded, making option B correct.

Surpluses typically arise when prices are set above the equilibrium level. At higher prices, producers supply more while consumers demand less, creating excess supply. Market forces then place downward pressure on prices until equilibrium is restored.

Options A and C describe shortages. Option D may be true in some cases but is not the defining characteristic.

Thus, option B correctly defines a market surplus.


Question 7

When there is an expectation of lower income in the future, what is the effect on the demand curve for a normal good?

Correct Answer: A. The demand curve shifts left.
Explanation:

In Global Economics for Managers, demand for a normal good increases with income and decreases when income falls. If consumers expect lower future income, demand for normal goods decreases, causing the demand curve to shift left, making option A correct.

A leftward shift indicates that at every price, consumers are willing and able to purchase less of the good. Expectations about future income influence present consumption decisions, especially for durable and discretionary goods.

Options C and D incorrectly describe movement along a demand curve rather than a shift. Option B would apply if income were expected to rise.

Therefore, option A is correct.


Question 8

In order to increase the money supply, what does the Federal Reserve do?

Correct Answer: C. Buys government bonds from the public
Explanation:

In Global Economics for Managers, the Federal Reserve increases the money supply primarily through open market operations, specifically by buying government bonds from the public, making option C correct.

When the Fed purchases government securities, it pays banks and other sellers by crediting their reserves. This action increases the amount of reserves in the banking system, enabling banks to extend more loans. As lending expands, the money supply grows through the money multiplier process.

Option A would decrease the money supply. Option B tightens monetary conditions. Option D reduces banks' ability to lend.

Managers should understand this mechanism because changes in the money supply affect interest rates, investment, exchange rates, and aggregate demand. Therefore, option C accurately describes how the Fed increases the money supply.


Question 9

What are examples of regulatory pillars? (Choose TWO.)

Correct Answer: B. Reporting a crime because it is against the law to withhold information; D. Paying parking tickets out of fear of a suspended driver's license
Explanation:

In Global Economics for Managers, regulatory pillars are part of the institutional framework and refer to formal rules, laws, and enforcement mechanisms that guide behavior through coercion and legal sanctions. Examples include laws backed by penalties for noncompliance, making options B and D correct.

Option B---reporting a crime because it is illegal to withhold information---clearly reflects compliance driven by legal obligation and enforcement. Option D---paying parking tickets out of fear of license suspension---also demonstrates behavior shaped by formal sanctions imposed by authorities.

The remaining options reflect normative or cognitive pillars, not regulatory ones. Options A and E describe behavior influenced by social norms rather than laws. Option C reflects herd behavior and shared beliefs, a cognitive pillar. Option F reflects deeply held moral values, characteristic of normative institutions.

Global Economics for Managers emphasizes that regulatory pillars are especially important for managers because they define the legal boundaries of business activity and impose explicit costs for violations. Thus, options B and D accurately represent regulatory pillars.


Question 10

When is it best for a firm to restart production?

Correct Answer: C. When total variable costs are less than total revenue after a short-term stop
Explanation:

A firm should restart production when total revenue is greater than total variable cost, meaning the firm can cover its variable costs and contribute something toward fixed costs. Option C is correct because, after a short-term shutdown, fixed costs may still exist whether the firm produces or not. The key restart decision is whether operating revenue can cover variable operating expenses. If total revenue exceeds total variable cost, production reduces losses or may generate profit. Option A is not sufficient because total revenue being less than total cost may still allow production to be better than shutdown if variable costs are covered. Option B means producing additional units lowers profit, so it supports decreasing production. Option D does not justify restarting. The short-run rule focuses on variable cost coverage.